HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.
Question 2 of 5
A client with osteoarthritis is prescribed acetaminophen. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Acetaminophen can cause liver damage if taken in excessive amounts or in combination with other medications containing acetaminophen. Clients should be advised to avoid other pain medications to prevent liver toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because acetaminophen is usually taken with or without food, not specifically on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because taking acetaminophen with food can help prevent stomach upset. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring liver function tests is important for long-term acetaminophen use, the most crucial teaching is to avoid other pain medications to prevent liver damage.
Question 3 of 5
A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.
Question 4 of 5
An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.
Question 5 of 5
Following a cardiac catheterization and placement of a stent in the right coronary artery, the nurse administers prasugrel, a platelet inhibitor, to the client. To monitor for adverse effects from the medication, which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's care plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prasugrel is a platelet inhibitor, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for bleeding, particularly at the catheterization site and in other areas, is the most important assessment following administration of the drug. Checking platelet count and observing urine color are relevant but not as immediate. Reviewing liver function tests is not directly related to the adverse effects of prasugrel.