HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with hypertension. Which of these statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because limiting high-sodium foods is essential in managing hypertension and preventing complications. High sodium intake can lead to increased blood pressure levels. Choice B is important too, but solely relying on medications without lifestyle modifications may not be as effective in controlling hypertension. Choice C is also crucial for monitoring progress, but without dietary changes, blood pressure control may be challenging. Choice D, limiting high-fat foods, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly related to managing hypertension as limiting high-sodium foods.
Question 2 of 9
A client with hypertension taking a potassium-wasting diuretic is being educated about nutrition by a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Consume organs and bananas.' When a client is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic, they are at risk of potassium loss. Consuming foods high in potassium, such as organs and bananas, can help counteract this loss. Choice A is incorrect because tuna and salmon are not particularly high in potassium. Choice B is incorrect because dried fruits are good sources of potassium. Choice C is incorrect as cow's milk is also a good source of potassium, which could be beneficial for a client taking a potassium-wasting diuretic.
Question 3 of 9
A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.
Question 5 of 9
A client underwent coronary artery bypass grafting and is learning about following a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following food choices indicates the client's understanding of these dietary instructions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Beans. Beans are an excellent choice for individuals following a low-cholesterol diet post-coronary artery bypass grafting due to their low cholesterol content. Beans are high in fiber and protein, making them a heart-healthy option. Choice A, Liver, is high in cholesterol and should be avoided in a low-cholesterol diet. Choice B, Milk, contains cholesterol and saturated fats, which are not ideal for this diet. Choice D, Eggs, are also high in cholesterol and should be limited in a low-cholesterol diet.
Question 6 of 9
An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is the appropriate action in this scenario. It helps assess the client's ability to swallow safely without the risk of aspiration. Adding a thickening agent to the fluids (Choice A) may be considered later if swallowing difficulties persist. Feeding the client only solid foods (Choice C) can increase the risk of aspiration in this case, and increasing the rate of intravenous fluids (Choice D) does not address the swallowing concern.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.
Question 8 of 9
A 14-year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statement by the client would be most indicative of the etiology of this crisis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a recent illness, such as a cold, can trigger a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease. This crisis is often precipitated by infections or other illnesses that cause a systemic inflammatory response, leading to vaso-occlusion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the etiology of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, making them incorrect.
Question 9 of 9
A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). As the nurse enters the client's room, the oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute, the client's color is flushed, and his respirations are 8 per minute. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD, it is crucial to prevent carbon dioxide retention by avoiding high oxygen levels. As the client's oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute and he is showing signs of oxygen toxicity, such as flushed color and low respirations, the nurse's priority should be to lower the oxygen rate. This action helps prevent worsening the client's condition. Obtaining an EKG, placing the client in high Fowler's position, or taking baseline vital signs are important assessments but addressing the potential oxygen toxicity takes precedence in this scenario.