HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed antibiotics. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to give the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to give a client with a UTI who is prescribed antibiotics is to complete the full course of antibiotics. Completing the full course of antibiotics is essential to ensure that the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. While taking antibiotics with food, increasing fluid intake, and managing discomfort with pain relievers are important aspects of UTI management, completing the prescribed course of antibiotics is the top priority to achieve the best treatment outcomes and prevent recurrence of the infection.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin is the first-line treatment for chest pain related to coronary artery disease. It helps dilate the coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart, providing immediate relief from ischemia. Administering nitroglycerin promptly can help alleviate the chest pain and prevent further complications. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important but should not delay the administration of nitroglycerin. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice C) can be done after initiating immediate treatment. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice D) is relevant but not the first action to take in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.
Question 5 of 5
A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.