The nurse is preparing a client for discharge who has a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) self-administration. What information is most important for the nurse to provide the client about this medication?

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HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1 Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is preparing a client for discharge who has a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) self-administration. What information is most important for the nurse to provide the client about this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Teaching the client about self-administration techniques for subcutaneous injection is crucial for safe and effective use of enoxaparin. Option A is the correct answer as it directly addresses the client's need to know how to properly administer the medication. Options B, C, and D are important aspects of care but are not the most critical information needed for the client's self-administration of enoxaparin.

Question 2 of 9

When evaluating the preoperative teaching of a client scheduled for arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament repair, which statement by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using crutches indicates an understanding of weight-bearing restrictions post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for a wheelchair is not related to postoperative mobility instructions. Choice C is incorrect as turning in bed using the trapeze bar and side rails does not address weight-bearing restrictions. Choice D is incorrect because putting full weight on the foot immediately after surgery contradicts the need to keep weight off the knee.

Question 3 of 9

Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.

Question 4 of 9

An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been 'trying to start a new business' and is 'too busy to eat.' He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the most critical nursing diagnosis to address in this scenario. The patient's significant weight loss and neglect of basic needs, such as eating and personal hygiene, indicate a severe imbalance in nutrition. Addressing this issue is crucial to prevent further health deterioration. Self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are important but secondary concerns compared to the immediate risk posed by imbalanced nutrition. While self-care deficit and disturbed sleep pattern are valid concerns, the patient's weight loss and neglect of basic needs take precedence. Disturbed thought processes are also significant but addressing the imbalanced nutrition is more urgent in this context.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to assess the client's oxygen saturation level. In a client with COPD and abnormal respiratory and heart rates, determining the oxygen saturation helps evaluate the adequacy of oxygen exchange and the severity of respiratory distress. Administering a bronchodilator (choice A) can be appropriate but assessing oxygen saturation takes priority. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (choice B) may not address the immediate need for oxygenation assessment. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (choice D) is important but typically follows the initial assessment of oxygen saturation.

Question 6 of 9

A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting. By administering the antiemetic before meals, the nurse can help prevent the onset of nausea, allowing the client to eat more comfortably. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice B) is important for maintaining oral hygiene but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) and offering clear liquids (Choice D) are generally recommended for clients experiencing nausea, but administering an antiemetic is a more targeted approach to specifically address and manage the symptom.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving opioids like morphine sulfate via a PCA pump, the most critical action for the nurse to implement is to monitor the client's respiratory status. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring respiratory status allows for early detection of any signs of respiratory compromise. Teaching the client how to use the PCA pump, evaluating pain level, and assessing pain level are important aspects of care but ensuring the client's safety by monitoring respiratory status takes precedence due to the potential risks associated with opioid administration.

Question 9 of 9

A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client¢â‚¬â„¢s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.

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