The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign to this newly graduated practical nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection. This assignment is the best choice for the new graduate nurse because a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection is likely stable and requires minimal immediate interventions. This client would benefit from the new nurse's routine care and monitoring skills, allowing the nurse to focus on completing tasks efficiently. Option B: With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration requires close monitoring and frequent adjustments in insulin dosages, which may be challenging for a new nurse without adequate supervision. Option C: Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments demands critical thinking skills and quick decision-making abilities, which may overwhelm a new nurse who lacks experience in handling such cases. Option D: Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol involves complex medication management and monitoring for potential complications, which may be beyond the scope of a new nurse's comfort level without proper guidance.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse-manager should ask the nurses to meet to identify ways of working together. This is the best action because it promotes open communication, collaboration, and conflict resolution between the two nurses. By facilitating a discussion between them, the nurse-manager can help address the underlying issues, clarify misunderstandings, and find common ground for effective teamwork. This approach encourages mutual understanding and fosters a positive working relationship. A: Having both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant does not directly address the conflict between them. B: While listening actively and offering suggestions is important, involving both nurses in the discussion is crucial for resolving the conflict. C: Asking the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies does not involve the new graduate in the conversation and may not address the overall issue.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain skeletal pin sites and assess for signs of infection. This is important to prevent complications like infection, which can be severe. The nurse should regularly assess the pin sites for redness, swelling, or discharge. This intervention ensures early detection and prompt treatment of any signs of infection, reducing the risk of serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because performing passive range of motion to the right leg may disrupt the traction and interfere with the healing process. Choice B is incorrect because removing skeletal weights every shift can lead to loss of traction, compromising the fracture alignment and healing process. Choice C is incorrect because turning the client frequently from prone to supine positions may also disrupt the traction and increase the risk of complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective airway clearance. After a ureter lithotomy, the client may be at risk for respiratory complications due to anesthesia, pain, and immobility. Ineffective airway clearance can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress, making it the highest priority. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway and breathing in the postoperative period. Therefore, addressing airway clearance first is crucial to ensure optimal client outcomes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common complication in chronic kidney disease. This can lead to serious issues like heart failure. Monitoring weight daily (A) is important, but specifically reporting significant gains promptly (C) is crucial. Limiting fluid intake (B) is important, but not the top priority. Increasing protein intake (D) may worsen kidney function, so it's not recommended.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Place the child in a mist tent. This intervention is crucial in managing a child with croup, which presents with stridor, fever, and respiratory distress. Placing the child in a mist tent provides humidified air, which can help reduce airway inflammation and ease breathing. It is the first-line treatment for croup and should be initiated promptly to relieve the child's symptoms. Obtaining a sputum culture (B) is not necessary in this scenario as the child's presentation is consistent with croup, which is a clinical diagnosis. Preparing for an emergent tracheostomy (C) is an invasive procedure that should only be considered if other treatments fail. Examining the child's oropharynx (D) can be helpful but is not the most urgent intervention in this situation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid alcohol while taking this medication. Phenytoin interacts with alcohol, increasing the risk of side effects such as dizziness and drowsiness. Alcohol can also reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Taking the medication with meals (choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but does not address the alcohol interaction. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary for all clients and does not address the alcohol interaction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (Breath sounds). Pitting edema is a common side effect of amlodipine due to vasodilation. It can also lead to pulmonary edema, causing shortness of breath and crackles on auscultation. Therefore, assessing breath sounds is crucial to detect any signs of fluid overload and potential pulmonary complications. Bladder distention (A) is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Serum albumin level (B) may indicate protein status but is not immediately necessary in this case. Abdominal girth (C) is more indicative of ascites or abdominal distension, not directly related to the client's edema and possible pulmonary complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is the first action the nurse should take because the client is experiencing abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea, which could indicate a gynecological issue. A pelvic examination by a healthcare provider is necessary to assess for any potential reproductive system problems, such as ovarian cysts, endometriosis, or pelvic inflammatory disease. This examination will provide valuable information to diagnose and treat the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because notifying the parents to pick up the client does not address the primary concern of evaluating the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. Choice C is also incorrect as determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, while important, does not take precedence over a thorough pelvic examination. Choice D is incorrect as asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination should only be done by a healthcare provider in a proper clinical setting, not in a school clinic.