HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and an aminoglycoside antibiotic. The nurse will be most concerned if the patient reports which symptom?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tinnitus. When furosemide and an aminoglycoside antibiotic are used together, there is an increased risk of ototoxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is a common early sign of ototoxicity. Dizziness (choice A) is a common side effect of furosemide but not specifically related to this drug interaction. Dysuria (choice B) is painful urination and is not directly associated with this drug combination. Nausea (choice C) is a common side effect of furosemide but is not specifically indicative of ototoxicity caused by the drug interaction.
Question 2 of 5
The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). To monitor the patient's response and prevent adverse effects, the healthcare professional should request coagulation studies, such as International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels. Choosing a decreased dose of TMP-SMX would not address the potential drug interaction between TMP-SMX and warfarin. Opting for a different antibiotic is not necessary if the interaction can be managed by monitoring. Increasing the dose of warfarin without monitoring could lead to excessive anticoagulation and adverse events, so it's not the appropriate action in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing the chest tube drainage system of a postoperative client who has undergone a right upper lobectomy. The closed drainage system contains 300 mL of bloody drainage, and the nurse notes intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber. One hour after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the bubbling in the water seal chamber is now constant, and the client appears dyspneic. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should first assess:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection in the chest tube system. Checking the chest tube connections should be the initial action because correcting an air leak can quickly resolve the client's symptoms. If a leak is found and corrected, the dyspnea should improve. Assessing the client's vital signs (Option A) is important, but addressing the potential cause of dyspnea takes precedence. Monitoring the amount of drainage (Option B) is necessary for assessing the client's overall condition, but in this case, the dyspnea is likely due to an air leak. Checking the client's lung sounds (Option C) is essential for respiratory assessment, but addressing the air leak should be the immediate priority to ensure adequate lung expansion and oxygenation.
Question 4 of 5
Upon arrival of a client transferred to the surgical unit, what should the nurse plan to do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The initial action for the nurse upon the arrival of a client to the surgical unit is to assess the patency of the airway. This step takes priority to ensure that the client has a clear airway for adequate breathing. Checking tubes and drains for patency, inspecting the dressing for bleeding, and assessing vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements are important subsequent steps in the assessment process. However, ensuring the airway is patent is the immediate priority to maintain the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.
Question 5 of 5
A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. For an EEG, it is essential that the client's hair is clean, without any products like hairspray or gel, to ensure good electrode contact with the scalp. Choice B is not a concern as having breakfast is allowed before the test. Choice C, not taking an anticonvulsant, might be required for certain types of EEGs to capture accurate brain activity. Choice D, not drinking coffee, is not a specific requirement for an EEG preparation.