HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6 Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. SIADH leads to excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the body to retain water and diluting the sodium levels in the blood (hyponatremia). Restricting oral fluids helps prevent further water retention and worsening hyponatremia. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) would exacerbate the problem by further diluting sodium levels. Administering vasopressin (choice B) is not indicated in SIADH, as the condition is characterized by excess ADH secretion. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice C) is not the priority in SIADH since the issue is water retention rather than dehydration.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of adrenal insufficiency. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of an Addisonian crisis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In an Addisonian crisis, there is a lack of adrenal hormones leading to severe hypotension. Hypertension (choice A) is not a typical sign of Addisonian crisis but can occur in conditions like pheochromocytoma. Hyperglycemia (choice B) is not a characteristic sign of an Addisonian crisis. Tachycardia (choice D) may occur as a compensatory mechanism in response to hypotension, but severe bradycardia is more common in an Addisonian crisis.
Question 3 of 9
The client has undergone a thyroidectomy. Which of the following symptoms would indicate a potential complication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypocalcemia is a potential complication of thyroidectomy as it may occur if the parathyroid glands, responsible for calcium regulation, are inadvertently removed or damaged during the procedure. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with thyroidectomy complications. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly seen in hyperthyroidism. Hyperreflexia (exaggerated reflex responses) is not a typical complication of thyroidectomy.
Question 4 of 9
The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.
Question 5 of 9
The client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being taught about managing blood glucose levels. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stating 'I can eat unlimited fruit as it is healthy' is incorrect. While fruits are healthy, they also contain natural sugars that can affect blood glucose levels. Portion control is crucial to managing blood glucose levels effectively. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate correct understanding. Rotating insulin injection sites helps prevent tissue damage, monitoring blood glucose levels before meals aids in managing diabetes effectively, and carrying a fast-acting carbohydrate is essential to treat hypoglycemia promptly.
Question 6 of 9
After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
Question 7 of 9
A client with DM is scheduled to have surgery. The nurse should plan to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. This is essential to ensure that the client's blood glucose levels remain within the target range and to prevent complications such as hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because giving a regular diet as ordered, holding insulin on the morning of surgery, or stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels, posing risks to the client's safety during the surgical procedure.
Question 8 of 9
Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.
Question 9 of 9
For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.