HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with fluid overload. The most reliable indicator of fluid volume status is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Daily weight is the most reliable indicator of fluid volume status as it reflects changes in body fluid balance accurately. Body weight alone can fluctuate due to various factors, including food intake and bowel movements, which may not accurately represent fluid status. Intake and output provide information on fluid balance over time but may not reflect immediate changes. Skin turgor is a physical assessment finding that indicates hydration status, not overall fluid volume status.
Question 2 of 5
A client has been given a prescription for tetracycline HCL (Sumycin). The nurse should emphasize the client to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes.' Tetracycline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to jaundice which may present as yellowing of the skin or eyes. This is a serious side effect that the nurse should emphasize to the client. Choice A is incorrect because tetracycline should generally be taken on an empty stomach, not with food or milk. Choice B is also incorrect as tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, but it is not directly related to yellowing skin or eyes. Choice D is incorrect because tetracycline can cause yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth, but this is usually seen in children under 8 years of age, not a common concern for adult clients.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse receives a report on an older adult client with middle stage dementia. What information suggests the nurse should do immediate follow-up rather than delegate care to the nursing assistant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A change in responsiveness, as indicated by being minimally responsive to voice and touch, suggests a potential acute issue that requires immediate nursing assessment and intervention rather than delegation. Changes in vital signs (choices A, B, D) can be important but do not always indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention compared to a change in responsiveness.
Question 4 of 5
A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of chronic kidney disease presents with increased swelling and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a diuretic as prescribed. In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing increased swelling and shortness of breath, the priority action is to address fluid retention. Administering a diuretic helps reduce fluid overload, alleviate symptoms, and prevent complications associated with fluid buildup. Option A is not the priority in this situation as addressing fluid retention takes precedence over providing oxygen. While monitoring vital signs is important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of symptoms. Repositioning the client may help with comfort but does not directly address the fluid overload seen in chronic kidney disease.
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