HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Heparin primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. 2. International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. 3. INR is more specific for monitoring heparin therapy compared to other options. 4. Prothrombin Time (PT) and Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are not as accurate for heparin monitoring. 5. Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, but INR is a more precise indicator of heparin's effect.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic before meals. Administering an antiemetic before meals helps prevent and manage nausea associated with chemotherapy by blocking receptors that trigger nausea and vomiting. This intervention targets the root cause of the symptom. Providing frequent mouth care (B) may help with taste changes but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (C) and offering clear liquids (D) may be helpful for some clients, but they do not specifically target nausea caused by chemotherapy.
Question 3 of 5
A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 indicates deep unconsciousness, which is classified as a coma. A GCS score of 3 signifies the lowest possible level of consciousness and is associated with a very poor prognosis due to the severity of neurological impairment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increased intracranial pressure may be present in comatose patients but is not solely indicated by a GCS score of 3. A good prognosis is unlikely with a GCS score of 3. Being unconscious with a GCS score of 3 does not equate to being conscious but disoriented as in choice C.
Question 4 of 5
A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator. This is the appropriate action for a college student with symptoms of a vaginal infection with a 'cottage cheese' appearance discharge, which is indicative of a yeast infection (most likely caused by Candida). Nystatin is an antifungal medication effective against Candida, hence addressing the root cause of the infection. It is essential to start with the treatment first to alleviate the symptoms and prevent further complications. Incorrect choices: A: Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may provide some comfort but does not address the underlying infection. C: Performing a glucose measurement is not necessary at this stage as the symptoms suggest a yeast infection, not diabetes. D: Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this case as the symptoms are indicative of a yeast infection, not an STD.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus. This client should be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit because lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect pregnancy outcomes. The antepartal unit is better equipped to provide specialized care for high-risk pregnancies, which would be necessary for a client with lupus. A: A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B - Hepatitis B does not directly impact pregnancy outcomes and does not require transfer to the antepartal unit. C: A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella - Rubella is a viral infection that can be harmful during pregnancy, but the client should be managed in a different unit specialized in infectious diseases. D: A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva - Herpes lesions of the vulva can be managed in the medical-surgical unit and do not necessarily require transfer to the antepartal unit unless there