The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

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Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound (Choice A). This is because the client's situation suggests an incisional dehiscence, which is a surgical complication requiring immediate attention to prevent infection and further complications. Applying a sterile saline dressing helps protect the exposed bowel from contamination and dehydration. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) is important, but immediate wound care is the priority to prevent complications. Administering pain medication (Choice C) can wait until after the wound is properly dressed and assessed. Covering the wound with an abdominal binder (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the urgent need to protect the exposed bowel and prevent infection.

Question 2 of 5

A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: It prevents the blood from clotting. Warfarin works as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors in the liver. This prevents the formation of blood clots and reduces the risk of conditions like deep vein thrombosis or stroke. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones. Choice C is misleading as it does not actually "thin" the blood but affects its ability to clot. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Heparin primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. 2. International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. 3. INR is more specific for monitoring heparin therapy compared to other options. 4. Prothrombin Time (PT) and Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are not as accurate for heparin monitoring. 5. Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, but INR is a more precise indicator of heparin's effect.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-op following abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This is because the client is experiencing evisceration, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate attention to prevent infection and further complications. By applying a sterile saline dressing, the nurse can protect the exposed bowel from contamination, maintain moisture, and promote healing. This action helps to reduce the risk of infection and provides a temporary barrier until further interventions can be implemented. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to protect the exposed bowel is the priority. C: Administering pain medication does not address the primary concern of protecting the exposed bowel. D: Covering the wound with an abdominal binder does not provide the necessary protection and could potentially exacerbate the situation by applying pressure to the protruding bowel.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic before meals. Administering an antiemetic before meals helps prevent and manage nausea associated with chemotherapy by blocking receptors that trigger nausea and vomiting. This intervention targets the root cause of the symptom. Providing frequent mouth care (B) may help with taste changes but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (C) and offering clear liquids (D) may be helpful for some clients, but they do not specifically target nausea caused by chemotherapy.

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