HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse has received funding to design a health promotion project for African American women who are at risk for developing breast cancer. Which resource is most important in designing this program?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In designing a health promotion project for African American women at risk for developing breast cancer, the most important resource is the participation of community leaders in planning the program (Option A). This is because community leaders have a deep understanding of the specific needs, cultural nuances, and barriers faced by the target population. Their involvement ensures that the program is culturally sensitive, relevant, and effectively reaches the intended audience. The other options are not as crucial for designing this specific health promotion project. While the latest research on breast cancer risk factors (Option B) is important for informing evidence-based interventions, without the input and guidance of community leaders, the program may not effectively resonate with the African American women it aims to serve. Partnership with local healthcare providers (Option C) is valuable for service provision but may not address the unique community-level factors that influence health behaviors. Health surveys of African American women in the community (Option D) can provide insights but may lack the overarching community perspective that leaders can offer. In an educational context, this question highlights the significance of community engagement and cultural competence in developing health interventions. It underscores the importance of involving key stakeholders from the target population in program planning to ensure its success and impact. Students can learn how community collaboration enhances the relevance and effectiveness of health promotion initiatives, particularly in addressing health disparities among diverse populations.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option D: A pulse oximetry reading of 88%. This finding indicates that the client's oxygen saturation level is below the normal range (usually 95-100%), which is a critical concern in a patient with COPD experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent hypoxia and its detrimental effects on vital organs. Option A, a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute, while elevated, may be a compensatory mechanism for hypoxia and is not as immediately concerning as low oxygen saturation. Option B, the use of accessory muscles for breathing, is a sign of increased work of breathing but does not indicate the severity of hypoxia. Option C, a barrel chest appearance, is a chronic finding in COPD due to hyperinflation of the lungs and is not an acute sign requiring immediate intervention. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of prioritizing assessments based on the urgency of the client's condition. Understanding the significance of oxygen saturation levels in respiratory distress is crucial for nurses caring for patients with COPD and other respiratory conditions. Early recognition and intervention in hypoxemic patients can prevent further deterioration and improve outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option B) The client reports feeling weak and shaky, which requires immediate intervention by the nurse. This symptom could indicate hypoglycemia, a potential complication of TPN therapy in pancreatitis patients. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences like seizures or loss of consciousness, thus necessitating prompt attention. Option A) Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL may be slightly elevated but does not pose an immediate threat. Option C) The TPN bag is 5% dextrose could be a normal concentration for TPN and does not indicate an urgent issue. Option D) The client feeling thirsty may suggest dehydration, which is important to address but not as critical as potential hypoglycemia. From an educational perspective, this question highlights the importance of recognizing and prioritizing assessments in patients receiving TPN, especially those with pancreatitis. Nurses must be vigilant in monitoring for complications like hypoglycemia and be prepared to intervene promptly to ensure patient safety and well-being.
Question 4 of 5
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority action should be to administer a potassium supplement (Option A) to the client with heart failure who has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urinary excretion. Hypokalemia (low potassium level) can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias in clients with heart failure. Option B, encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods, may not provide immediate correction of the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide (Option C) can address further potassium loss but does not address the current deficiency. Increasing fluid intake (Option D) may help with dehydration but does not directly address the low potassium level. From an educational perspective, understanding the importance of monitoring electrolyte levels, especially potassium, in clients taking diuretics is essential for nurses caring for patients with heart failure. Administering a potassium supplement in this case is crucial to prevent cardiac complications associated with hypokalemia. Nurses need to be vigilant about recognizing and addressing electrolyte imbalances promptly to optimize patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a recent MI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), understanding the significance of laboratory test results is crucial for timely and accurate intervention. In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Elevated troponin levels. Troponin is a protein released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, making it a highly specific marker for myocardial infarction. Elevated troponin levels indicate cardiac muscle injury, confirming the diagnosis of a recent MI. Option B) Increased white blood cell count is not specific to MI but rather indicates a general inflammatory response, which can be seen in various conditions. Option C) Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is not as specific to cardiac muscle damage as troponin and can be elevated in multiple organ systems, making it less indicative of an MI. Option D) Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and is not specific to myocardial infarction. While inflammation may be present in MI, it is not as specific as troponin in diagnosing cardiac muscle damage. Educationally, understanding the nuances of these laboratory tests helps nurses differentiate between various conditions and provide appropriate care. Recognizing the significance of troponin in diagnosing MI can lead to prompt treatment and improved patient outcomes.