HESI RN
Pediatric HESI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The mother of a 9-month-old girl provides the practical nurse with information about her daughter's diet. Which statement by the mother may indicate why the infant has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Infants should not be given cow's milk before 1 year of age as it can interfere with iron absorption and lead to anemia. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding sugary water is actually a good practice. Choice C is unrelated to iron-deficiency anemia. Choice D, not liking peaches or pears, is also not directly related to iron-deficiency anemia.
Question 2 of 9
The healthcare provider is assessing a child for neurological soft signs. Which finding is most likely demonstrated in the child's behavior?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Neurological soft signs in children often manifest as poor coordination and a sense of position. These signs can indicate underlying neurological issues and are important to assess in pediatric patients. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with neurological soft signs in children. Inability to move the tongue in a specific direction may suggest a cranial nerve dysfunction rather than general neurological soft signs. Presence of vertigo is more related to inner ear disturbances or vestibular issues. Loss of visual acuity may indicate problems with the eyes rather than general neurological soft signs.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.
Question 4 of 9
A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.
Question 5 of 9
The parents of a 15-month-old boy tell the nurse that they are concerned because their son brings his spoon to his mouth but does not turn it over. What action should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The initial action for the nurse is to question the parents about their concerns. By doing so, the nurse can gather more information to understand the situation better. This helps in determining if the child's behavior is within normal development or if further action or referrals are necessary. Choice A is incorrect as it jumps to a specialist referral without fully assessing the situation first. Choice C is also incorrect because assuming the parents need advice on proper spoon handling techniques may not be the case. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the core concern raised by the parents.
Question 6 of 9
A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg · 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.
Question 7 of 9
A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL. The client is lethargic and has fruity-smelling breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse is to start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client's presentation with lethargy, fruity-smelling breath, and high blood glucose level indicates diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). IV fluids are essential to correct dehydration and help stabilize the client's condition. Checking for ketones in the urine is important, but fluid replacement takes precedence to address the immediate risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering insulin is also a crucial intervention for DKA, but fluid resuscitation should first be initiated.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is preparing to administer an immunization to a 5-year-old child. The parent asks if the vaccine can be given in a different way because the child is afraid of needles. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering the vaccine as a nasal spray provides an alternative method of delivery that avoids the use of needles, addressing the child's fear while ensuring immunization. Nasal sprays are effective for certain vaccines and can be a suitable option in this scenario. Choice A is not the best response as it only addresses pain management but does not eliminate the use of needles. Choice B is incorrect as there are alternative delivery methods like nasal sprays. Choice D is incorrect as skipping the vaccine would leave the child unprotected and is not a recommended course of action.
Question 9 of 9
The healthcare provider is developing the plan of care for a hospitalized child with von Willebrand disease. What priority nursing intervention should be included in this child's plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Children with von Willebrand disease have a deficiency in a clotting protein, putting them at risk of bleeding episodes. The priority nursing intervention for a child with von Willebrand disease is to guard against bleeding injuries to prevent excessive bleeding or hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions for von Willebrand disease. While reducing exposure to infection is important for any hospitalized child, it is not the priority for von Willebrand disease. Eliminating contact with cold objects is more relevant for conditions like Raynaud's disease. Reducing contact with other children is not a specific priority related to managing von Willebrand disease.