The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most effective measure to indicate the program's effectiveness in a diabetes management class is the reduction in participants' average blood glucose levels. This measure directly reflects the impact of the program on managing diabetes and improving health outcomes. Choices A and B may provide valuable information but do not directly assess the program's impact on managing diabetes. Choice D, improvement in participants' knowledge about diabetes, is important but may not directly translate into improved diabetes management without actual health outcome measurements like blood glucose levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host. Anthrax is primarily transmitted through spores entering the body, either through the skin, inhalation, or ingestion. Person-to-person transmission of anthrax is extremely rare and not a significant mode of transmission. Choices B and C are incorrect because mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects, and spores can survive for extended periods outside a living host. Choice D is incorrect as anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: reduced rates of childhood obesity. A reduction in childhood obesity rates is a direct indicator that the program is successful in achieving its goal. Increased participation in physical activities (choice A) and higher attendance at nutrition education sessions (choice B) are positive outcomes, but they do not directly measure the program's effectiveness in reducing obesity. Greater knowledge of healthy eating habits (choice D) is important but does not guarantee a decrease in obesity rates. Therefore, the most significant outcome to determine the success of a childhood obesity reduction program is a reduction in obesity rates.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: the senior citizen center.' In this scenario, the elderly male client is experiencing unexplained weight loss, which could be indicative of underlying health issues or social isolation. Referring him to the senior citizen center is appropriate as it can provide social support, resources, and programs tailored to address the client's weight loss and overall well-being. Choice A, the adult day care center, is not the most suitable option as the client is still independent and living alone. Choice B, the social security administration office, and Choice C, the women, infants, and children office, are not relevant in this context and do not address the client's specific needs related to weight loss and social support.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: higher rates of condom use among teenagers. This outcome indicates that the teenagers are adopting safer sexual practices, which can effectively reduce the incidence of STIs. Increased attendance at educational sessions (Choice A) may show interest but does not directly reflect behavior change. More teenagers seeking testing for STIs (Choice C) indicates awareness but not necessarily prevention. Greater knowledge of STI prevention methods (Choice D) is valuable but does not guarantee behavioral change like increased condom use.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and unilateral leg swelling is to elevate the affected leg on a pillow. Elevating the affected leg helps reduce swelling and pain by promoting venous return and preventing stasis of blood flow. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may increase inflammation and worsen the condition. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) and encouraging ambulation (Choice D) can dislodge a clot and lead to potential embolism, making these choices contraindicated in a client with DVT.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The recommended option for managing stress during final exams is a balanced and nutritious meal. Fruit salad with fresh berries and oranges, chicken vegetable soup, and tea offer a variety of nutrients and antioxidants that can help combat stress. Option A is not ideal as it includes high-fat and high-calorie foods. Option B is a good choice, but Option C provides a wider range of nutrients and hydration. Option D is a healthy choice with a variety of proteins and vitamins, but Option C offers lighter options that may be easier to digest during stressful times.