The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is an indication of proper chest tube functioning. Clear, pale yellow fluid signifies normal drainage from the pleural space without any signs of infection or complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber, no fluctuation in the water-seal chamber, and intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber are all indications of potential issues or malfunctioning of the chest tube system, which would require further assessment and intervention.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The recommended option for managing stress during final exams is a balanced and nutritious meal. Fruit salad with fresh berries and oranges, chicken vegetable soup, and tea offer a variety of nutrients and antioxidants that can help combat stress. Option A is not ideal as it includes high-fat and high-calorie foods. Option B is a good choice, but Option C provides a wider range of nutrients and hydration. Option D is a healthy choice with a variety of proteins and vitamins, but Option C offers lighter options that may be easier to digest during stressful times.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client receiving TPN with an elevated blood glucose level is to check the TPN infusion rate. Elevated blood glucose levels in clients receiving TPN can be due to incorrect infusion rates leading to increased glucose delivery. By checking the TPN infusion rate, the nurse can verify if the rate is appropriate and make necessary adjustments. Stopping the TPN infusion abruptly could lead to complications from sudden nutrient deprivation. Administering insulin as prescribed may be necessary but should come after ensuring the correct TPN infusion rate. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but addressing the immediate need to check the infusion rate takes priority to manage hyperglycemia effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Weight and height measurements are crucial components of health screenings in children as they help assess growth patterns and identify potential health concerns such as obesity or growth disorders. Monitoring weight and height regularly can aid in early intervention and prevention of health issues. Annual flu vaccination status, total cholesterol level, and long bone deformity testing are not typically primary components of routine health screenings in elementary school children and may not directly contribute to identifying common health risks in this population.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Prioritizing the topic of the importance of a balanced diet is crucial as it provides a fundamental understanding for parents to establish healthy eating habits for their children. Understanding the importance of a balanced diet helps parents make informed decisions about food choices, portion sizes, and meal planning. Option A, focusing on the benefits of organic foods, while valuable, may not be feasible or affordable for all families. Option B, teaching parents how to read nutrition labels, is important but secondary to understanding the overall concept of a balanced diet. Option D, discussing ways to incorporate more vegetables into meals, is beneficial but should come after establishing the foundation of a balanced diet.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis and a history of alcohol abuse, a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Elevated amylase and lipase levels are common in acute pancreatitis but do not directly indicate the need for urgent intervention. A calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate action in this context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most critical factor to evaluate when assessing a community's readiness for a smoking cessation program is the community's attitude towards smoking. Understanding the community's perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors related to smoking is crucial as it helps determine the level of receptiveness and potential success of the program. Assessing smoking rates (Choice A) could provide valuable epidemiological data but may not reflect the community's readiness for change. While the availability of smoking cessation resources (Choice B) is important, without considering the community's attitude, the program's effectiveness may be limited. Local healthcare providers' support (Choice D) is valuable but secondary to the community's attitude, which directly influences the program's acceptance and impact.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.