HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 9
The healthcare provider is caring for a 7-year-old patient who will receive oral antibiotics. Which antibiotic order will the healthcare provider question for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tetracycline (Sumycin). Tetracyclines should not be given to children younger than 8 years of age because they irreversibly discolor the permanent teeth. Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, and Clindamycin are antibiotics that are generally safe for use in children and do not have the same tooth discoloration side effect as Tetracycline. Therefore, these antibiotics would be more appropriate choices for a 7-year-old patient.
Question 2 of 9
A client's baseline vital signs are temperature 98°F oral, pulse 74 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. The client suddenly spikes a fever to 103°F. Which of the following respiratory rates would the nurse anticipate as part of the body's response to the change in client status?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences a fever, there is an increase in body temperature, leading to a higher metabolic rate and oxygen demand. As a result, the respiratory rate typically increases to meet the body's increased oxygen needs. Therefore, in response to the fever spike from 98°F to 103°F, the nurse would anticipate a higher respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in body temperature, not an increase as seen in fever, would lead to a decrease in respiratory rate to conserve energy and oxygen consumption.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the minimal effective concentration (MEC) of antibiotics. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of this concept?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The MEC is the minimum amount of drug needed to halt the growth of a microorganism. A level greater than the MEC helps eradicate infections. Drugs at or above the MEC are usually bactericidal, not bacteriostatic. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Broadening the spectrum of a drug refers to its range of activity against different microorganisms, which is not directly related to MEC. Thus, choice B is incorrect. Increasing the therapeutic index involves maximizing the effectiveness of a drug while minimizing its toxicity, which is not specifically related to MEC. Therefore, choice D is also incorrect.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is preparing to administer doses of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient who has heart failure. The patient reports having blurred vision. The nurse notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 140/78 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is experiencing symptoms of digoxin toxicity, such as blurred vision and bradycardia. When thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide are taken with digoxin, the patient is at risk of digoxin toxicity due to the potential for thiazides to cause hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Administering the medications without addressing the potential toxicity could worsen the patient's condition. Requesting serum electrolytes (Choice A) may be necessary but holding the digoxin takes priority. Evaluating serum blood glucose (Choice B) is not relevant to the current situation. Holding hydrochlorothiazide (Choice D) is not the best option as the primary concern is the digoxin toxicity that needs to be addressed promptly.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.
Question 6 of 9
A client who underwent preadmission testing 1 week before surgery had blood drawn for several serum laboratory studies. Which abnormal laboratory results should the nurse report to the surgeon's office? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hemoglobin level of 8.9 g/dL is below the normal range, indicating anemia. Anemia can affect the body's ability to carry oxygen, impacting surgical outcomes. Hematocrit level is an indirect measure of red blood cells, which also reveals anemia when low. Sodium level of 141 mEq/L and platelet count of 210,000 cells/mm3 are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Abnormal sodium levels can lead to various issues, but in this scenario, it is not a concern for surgical readiness. Platelet count is vital for blood clotting, and a count of 210,000 cells/mm3 is considered normal, so it does not need urgent attention.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use, which is reflected in an 86-year-old male with a 50-pack-year cigarette smoking history. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for developing bladder cancer. Choices A, B, and C are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. While sexually transmitted diseases, certain occupational exposures, and recurrent urinary tract infections may pose other health risks, they are not specifically associated with an elevated risk of bladder cancer.
Question 8 of 9
During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oral potassium chloride supplements. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and has had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The patient reports abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oliguria, tachycardia, and abdominal cramping are signs of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should request an order for serum electrolytes to assess the patient's potassium levels. Encouraging the patient to consume less fluids would not address the underlying issue of potential hyperkalemia. Reporting symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider is not as proactive as directly requesting serum electrolytes. Increasing the patient's potassium dose would worsen hyperkalemia, which is already suspected based on the symptoms presented.