HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, option C, "The medication will permanently stain my skin," indicates a lack of understanding about the treatment. Silver sulfadiazine is an antibacterial agent used to prevent and treat wound infections in burn patients. It is not intended to permanently stain the skin. Option A, "The medication is an antibacterial," is correct as silver sulfadiazine is indeed an antibacterial agent. Option B, "The medication will help heal the burn," is also correct as it helps to prevent and treat infections, which aids in the healing process. Option D, "The medication should be applied directly to the wound," is also correct as silver sulfadiazine is a topical medication that should be applied to the affected area. Educationally, it is important for nurses to ensure that patients have a clear understanding of their medications to promote adherence and positive outcomes. Providing accurate information and addressing misconceptions can enhance patient safety and satisfaction with their treatment plan.
Question 2 of 5
Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary action of tamoxifen, an antineoplastic medication used in metastatic breast carcinoma, is to compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen receptors in tissues with high receptor concentrations. By doing so, tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response, leading to its therapeutic effect in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.
Question 3 of 5
The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.
Question 4 of 5
The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy used to aid digestion in clients with pancreatic insufficiency. One of the key goals of pancrelipase therapy is to reduce the amount of undigested fat in the stool, known as steatorrhea. Therefore, the nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of pancrelipase by looking for a reduction in steatorrhea, indicating improved digestion and absorption of fats.
Question 5 of 5
The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.