HESI RN
Community Health HESI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The healthcare professional is planning a health fair to promote cancer awareness and prevention. Which activity is most likely to increase participation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings is the most likely activity to increase participation in the health fair. Providing direct services such as screenings not only attracts participants but also promotes early detection, which is crucial in cancer prevention. Distributing pamphlets, hosting a guest speaker, or providing informational booths are informative but may not have the same impact in driving participation as the opportunity for free screenings.
Question 2 of 9
A public health nurse is assessing a community's readiness for a new smoking cessation program. Which factor is most important to evaluate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most critical factor to evaluate when assessing a community's readiness for a smoking cessation program is the community's attitude towards smoking. Understanding the community's perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors related to smoking is crucial as it helps determine the level of receptiveness and potential success of the program. Assessing smoking rates (Choice A) could provide valuable epidemiological data but may not reflect the community's readiness for change. While the availability of smoking cessation resources (Choice B) is important, without considering the community's attitude, the program's effectiveness may be limited. Local healthcare providers' support (Choice D) is valuable but secondary to the community's attitude, which directly influences the program's acceptance and impact.
Question 3 of 9
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) to a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment is most important before initiating the infusion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Cardiac rate and rhythm." Monitoring cardiac rate and rhythm is crucial before initiating IVIG because bradycardia is a common side effect associated with this therapy. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory status (Choice A) is important, but cardiac monitoring takes precedence due to the risk of bradycardia. Skin integrity and color (Choice B) are important assessments, but they are not directly related to potential complications of IVIG infusion. Neurological status and level of consciousness (Choice C) are also vital assessments, but monitoring cardiac function is more pertinent in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is assessing an older adult client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Ptosis on the left eyelid.' Ptosis is the term used to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris, which may be caused by issues with the oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscles. Choice B, 'Nystagmus,' refers to involuntary eye movements and is not related to eyelid drooping. Choice C, 'Astigmatism,' is a refractive error affecting vision due to an irregularly shaped cornea or lens, not an eyelid condition. Choice D, 'Exophthalmos,' is a protrusion of the eyeball associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism, not eyelid drooping.
Question 5 of 9
A community health nurse is conducting a neighborhood discussion group about disaster planning. What information regarding transmission of anthrax should the nurse provide to the group?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host. Anthrax is primarily transmitted through spores entering the body, either through the skin, inhalation, or ingestion. Person-to-person transmission of anthrax is extremely rare and not a significant mode of transmission. Choices B and C are incorrect because mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects, and spores can survive for extended periods outside a living host. Choice D is incorrect as anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.
Question 6 of 9
A 17-year-old unmarried, pregnant client with drug addiction is a high school dropout, homeless, and has a history of past abuse arrives at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. Which findings should the nurse document as health risk factors for the client? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All these factors - age, school dropout, drug addiction - are significant health risk factors for the client. Being young, a high school dropout, and struggling with drug addiction can lead to various complications during pregnancy, such as poor prenatal outcomes and social challenges. These factors can impact the client's overall health and well-being, highlighting the importance of addressing them during prenatal care.
Question 7 of 9
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.
Question 8 of 9
A community health nurse is conducting a program evaluation for a diabetes management class. Which measure best indicates the program's effectiveness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most effective measure to indicate the program's effectiveness in a diabetes management class is the reduction in participants' average blood glucose levels. This measure directly reflects the impact of the program on managing diabetes and improving health outcomes. Choices A and B may provide valuable information but do not directly assess the program's impact on managing diabetes. Choice D, improvement in participants' knowledge about diabetes, is important but may not directly translate into improved diabetes management without actual health outcome measurements like blood glucose levels.
Question 9 of 9
A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.