HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client diagnosed with a right fractured femur has skeletal traction applied to the right femur. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain skeletal pin sites and assess for signs of infection. This is important to prevent complications like infection, which can be severe. The nurse should regularly assess the pin sites for redness, swelling, or discharge. This intervention ensures early detection and prompt treatment of any signs of infection, reducing the risk of serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because performing passive range of motion to the right leg may disrupt the traction and interfere with the healing process. Choice B is incorrect because removing skeletal weights every shift can lead to loss of traction, compromising the fracture alignment and healing process. Choice C is incorrect because turning the client frequently from prone to supine positions may also disrupt the traction and increase the risk of complications.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach ensures the safety and immediate accessibility of the client, which is the highest priority in nursing care. This intervention helps prevent falls or other accidents and allows the client to call for assistance if needed. Choice B is incorrect because teaching pushing techniques is important but not the highest priority at this moment. Choice C, timing and recording uterine contractions, is also important but not the highest priority compared to ensuring the client's safety. Choice D, positioning for anesthesia distribution, is relevant but not as critical as ensuring immediate access to assistance in case of emergency.
Question 3 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lower the oxygen rate. Increasing oxygen flow too quickly can lead to oxygen toxicity in COPD patients, causing symptoms like lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate will help alleviate the symptoms and prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula (choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (choice C) may not address the immediate issue of oxygen toxicity. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important but should follow lowering the oxygen rate to address the current symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
When performing an admission assessment of a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Have you experienced any seizures? This question is crucial because seizures can be a common symptom of a brain tumor. By asking about seizures, the nurse can gather important information about the client's condition and potential complications. Seizures can also indicate the location and size of the tumor. A: When did your symptoms first begin? This question is important, but seizures are more specific to brain tumor assessment. B: Can you describe the pain and how it feels? Pain can vary and may not always be present with a brain tumor. C: Do you have any changes in vision? Vision changes can occur but may not be as indicative of a brain tumor as seizures. In summary, asking about seizures is crucial for immediate assessment and management of a client with a brain tumor, as it can provide valuable insight into the client's condition.
Question 5 of 5
A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is the first action the nurse should take because the client is experiencing abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea, which could indicate a gynecological issue. A pelvic examination by a healthcare provider is necessary to assess for any potential reproductive system problems, such as ovarian cysts, endometriosis, or pelvic inflammatory disease. This examination will provide valuable information to diagnose and treat the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because notifying the parents to pick up the client does not address the primary concern of evaluating the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. Choice C is also incorrect as determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, while important, does not take precedence over a thorough pelvic examination. Choice D is incorrect as asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination should only be done by a healthcare provider in a proper clinical setting, not in a school clinic.