Questions 9

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI RN Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of potential opioid overdose, such as lethargy, hypotension, tachycardia, and bradypnea. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This evaluation is crucial in determining if the client is receiving an excessive amount of morphine, leading to the observed symptoms. Checking the PCA pump syringe will provide essential information to address the client's condition promptly and prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as they do not directly address the potential cause of the client's symptoms related to morphine administration.

Question 2 of 5

A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The presence of a new murmur in a client with atrial fibrillation may indicate a valvular problem or other complications, requiring immediate reporting. A heart rate of 58 beats per minute is within the normal range for some individuals with atrial fibrillation, so it is not an immediate concern. An INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating appropriate anticoagulation. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

Question 3 of 5

The home health nurse is preparing to make daily visits to a group of clients. Which client should the nurse visit first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 3-pound weight gain in two days indicates fluid retention and worsening heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. This could be a sign of decompensation in the client's condition, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate threat to the client's health and can be addressed after assessing the client with congestive heart failure.

Question 4 of 5

A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are the most critical assessment findings in a client with cirrhosis. These symptoms may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Yellowing of the skin (jaundice) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis and does not necessitate immediate intervention. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are associated with fluid retention in cirrhosis but are not as urgent as addressing altered mental status and confusion.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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