In a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's

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HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

In a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hypokalemia can precipitate digitalis toxicity in individuals on digoxin, increasing the risk of dangerous dysrhythmias. A serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L) and indicates hypokalemia, which can potentiate the effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the potential for digitalis toxicity. Serum digoxin level of 1.5 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range, blood pressure of 104/68 mmHg is not a contraindication for administering digoxin, and an apical pulse of 68/min is within the normal range and not a reason to withhold digoxin.

Question 2 of 5

Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most important information to provide a post-menopausal female client regarding mammograms is that yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings. It is crucial for post-menopausal women to continue regular mammograms as they are at a higher risk for breast cancer. Option A is incorrect as breast self-examinations are still recommended in addition to mammograms. Option B is not the most important information compared to the importance of regular mammograms. Option D is not the most important advice for all post-menopausal females but specifically for those at high risk, indicating a more targeted approach.

Question 3 of 5

The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

Question 4 of 5

A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 5 of 5

A female client taking oral contraceptives reports to the nurse that she is experiencing calf pain. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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