HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 2 of 9
A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that are asymptomatic usually do not require treatment or removal. The statement 'Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out' indicates a need for further education. Choice A correctly states the frequency of fibroids in women and their age group. Choice B accurately describes fibroids as noncancerous slow-growing tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with uterine fibroids.
Question 3 of 9
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with anticoagulants. Which of these findings is most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because pain and swelling in the calf can indicate a new or worsening DVT, requiring immediate attention. Bruising on the arms and legs may be a common side effect of anticoagulants but is not as concerning as a potential DVT. Severe headache may indicate other conditions like a migraine or hypertension and is not directly related to DVT. Increased urination is not typically associated with DVT and may point towards other health issues like diabetes or urinary tract infections.
Question 4 of 9
A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.
Question 5 of 9
A client with a history of pancreatitis should avoid which of the following food choices?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like cheddar cheese as they can exacerbate symptoms. Noodles, vegetable soup, and baked fish are generally lower in fat and may be better tolerated by clients with pancreatitis.
Question 6 of 9
When speaking with a group of teens, which side effect of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hair loss is the correct answer. Teens are often more concerned about hair loss because of its visible impact and social implications. While mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, hair loss tends to be a significant concern for teens due to its effect on self-image and confidence.
Question 7 of 9
A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, a pale foot with the absence of a pulse indicates compromised circulation, which is a critical emergency. The nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider to address the circulation issue promptly. Reading the question and understanding the urgency is vital. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot in fifteen minutes are not appropriate actions when a child is experiencing compromised circulation.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has COPD. Which of the following instructions by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase protein intake. This is appropriate because increasing protein intake can help maintain muscle mass and strength in clients with COPD. Option A, 'Drink carbonated beverages,' is incorrect as carbonated beverages can exacerbate COPD symptoms. Option B, 'Decrease fiber intake,' is also incorrect as fiber is important for digestion and should not be decreased unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Option C, 'Use bronchodilators after meals,' is incorrect because bronchodilators are typically used before meals to help open the airways for better breathing, not after meals.
Question 9 of 9
For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.