HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
When planning activities for a socialization group for older residents of a long-term facility, what information would be most useful for the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most useful information for the nurse when planning activities for a socialization group for older residents of a long-term facility would be the usual activity patterns of each resident. An older person's level of activity is a determining factor in adjustment to aging, as described by the Activity Theory of Aging. By understanding the usual activity patterns of each resident, the nurse can tailor activities that cater to their interests and abilities, promoting social engagement and overall well-being. The other options, such as the length of time residing at the facility, a brief description of family life, or the age of each resident, may provide some insights but do not directly relate to planning activities that support adjustment to aging and socialization within the group.
Question 3 of 9
Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.
Question 4 of 9
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep. Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to raise the head of the bed on blocks (reverse Trendelenburg position). This elevation helps reduce reflux by using gravity to keep stomach contents from flowing back into the esophagus during sleep. Losing weight (Choice A) could be beneficial in managing GERD, but it may not be as effective for immediate relief during sleep. Decreasing caffeine intake (Choice B) and avoiding large meals (Choice C) are also valuable recommendations to manage GERD; however, they may not specifically address the issue of reflux during sleep as directly and effectively as elevating the head of the bed.
Question 5 of 9
A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to the Health Belief Model, the most effective event to increase compliance with the prescribed diet for a middle-aged male client with diabetes is experiencing a significant consequence related to the disease. In this case, visiting his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot would serve as a strong 'cue to action,' increasing the client's perceived seriousness of the disease. This event is likely to have a more immediate and impactful effect on the client than other options. Option B provides valuable information but may not have the same personal and emotional impact as witnessing a severe consequence firsthand. Option C involves indirect exposure to prevention messages, which might not be as compelling as a direct experience. Option D, while supportive, does not present a direct consequence of non-compliance like option A does.
Question 6 of 9
The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.
Question 7 of 9
A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Difficulty in handwriting is a common early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Changes in handwriting can indicate progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. Choice (A) is a sign of ascites, not hepatic encephalopathy. Hypertension and a bounding pulse (Choice B) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) do not directly indicate an increase in serum ammonia level, which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 9 of 9
After confirming that liquids are allowed, which assessment action should the nurse consider a priority for a client who is fully awake after a gastroscopy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After a gastroscopy, it is crucial for the nurse to prioritize checking the client's gag and swallow reflexes before allowing them to drink anything. This is because the effects of local anesthesia need to dissipate, and the airway's protective reflexes, including the gag and swallow reflexes, must have returned to prevent aspiration. Listening to lung and bowel sounds (Choice A) may be important but does not take precedence over ensuring the client's safety post-gastroscopy. Obtaining the client's pulse and blood pressure (Choice B) is also important but not the priority in this scenario. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void (Choice C) is a routine nursing action and is not directly related to the immediate safety concern of checking the client's gag and swallow reflexes post-gastroscopy.