HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.
Question 2 of 9
When speaking with a group of teens, which side effect of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hair loss is the correct answer. Teens are often more concerned about hair loss because of its visible impact and social implications. While mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, hair loss tends to be a significant concern for teens due to its effect on self-image and confidence.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has cancer about foods that prevent protein-energy malnutrition. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select one that doesn't apply).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Strawberries and bananas. Cottage cheese, milkshakes, and tuna fish are high in protein and calories, making them beneficial in preventing protein-energy malnutrition. However, strawberries and bananas are not as protein or calorie-dense compared to the other options, so they are not as effective in preventing malnutrition.
Question 4 of 9
A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. The nurse should explain that which of the following food sources contains iron that is most easily absorbed by the body?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Chicken.' Heme iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron from plant sources like spinach, dried apricots, and lentils. While plant-based iron sources are beneficial, they are not as readily absorbed by the body as heme iron from animal products.
Question 6 of 9
A client wants to increase her daily intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest the client increase?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Soybean oil. Soybean oil is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Blueberries (choice A), citrus fruits (choice C), and green tea (choice D) are not significant sources of omega-3 fatty acids. Blueberries are rich in antioxidants, citrus fruits provide vitamin C, and green tea contains polyphenols, but they do not offer a substantial amount of omega-3 fatty acids compared to soybean oil.
Question 7 of 9
The health care provider order reads 'aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tube every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate.' The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pH of 10 indicates improper placement of the NG tube, requiring notification of the provider and holding the feeding. Choice B is incorrect because administering the tube feeding could lead to complications due to the improper placement. Choice C is incorrect as irrigating the tube with diet cola soda is not a standard practice for addressing this issue. Choice D is incorrect as applying intermittent suction does not address the problem of improper placement indicated by the high pH level.
Question 8 of 9
A client who has received treatment for kidney stones should be reminded to increase intake of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Water. Increasing water intake helps prevent the formation of new kidney stones by diluting the urine. Tea (Choice A) contains oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation. Sodium (Choice B) should be limited to prevent the risk of certain types of kidney stones. Protein (Choice D) intake should be moderate as excessive protein consumption may increase the risk of kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to increase water intake is the most appropriate recommendation to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria half an hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a client developing urticaria during a blood transfusion, the immediate priority for the nurse is to stop the infusion. This action is crucial to prevent further administration of the allergen causing the reaction. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the allergic response effectively. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to prevent worsening of the reaction. Administering Benadryl (Choice D) should be considered after stopping the infusion, following the healthcare provider's orders, and assessing the client's condition.