HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, Nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia indicated by which of the following signs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic manifestation of hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood. After an adrenalectomy, where one adrenal gland is removed, there may be a risk of hyperkalemia due to altered hormone regulation. Tremors (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia but may be seen in conditions like hypocalcemia. Diaphoresis (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hyperkalemia. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating and constipation is a common gastrointestinal issue, neither directly related to potassium imbalances.
Question 2 of 5
When caring for a female client with a history of hypoglycemia, Nurse Ruby should avoid administering a drug that may potentiate hypoglycemia. Which drug fits this description?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin). Sulfisoxazole is known to potentiate hypoglycemia, making it unsafe for clients with a history of hypoglycemia. Choice B, Mexiletine, is a medication used to treat certain heart rhythm problems and is not associated with hypoglycemia. Choice C, Prednisone, is a corticosteroid and does not potentiate hypoglycemia. Choice D, Lithium carbonate, is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder and does not typically potentiate hypoglycemia. Therefore, the drug that Nurse Ruby should avoid in this case is Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) to prevent worsening the client's hypoglycemic condition.
Question 3 of 5
In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.
Question 4 of 5
Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.
Question 5 of 5
Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals. This instruction is essential because glipizide is a sulfonylurea medication that works by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin in response to food intake. Taking it before meals ensures that the medication's peak action aligns with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, thus optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Option B is incorrect because glipizide does not cause low serum sodium levels; rather, it can lead to hypoglycemia due to its blood glucose-lowering effects. Monitoring blood glucose levels and not sodium levels is crucial. Option C is incorrect as the client must continue to monitor their blood glucose levels even after starting glipizide to assess the medication's efficacy and adjust the dosage if needed. Option D is incorrect because taking glipizide after a meal may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially leading to suboptimal control of blood glucose levels. From an educational perspective, understanding the timing of medication administration in relation to meals is crucial for nurses managing clients with diabetes. Proper medication administration plays a significant role in achieving therapeutic outcomes and avoiding complications such as hypoglycemia. Nurses must provide clear and accurate medication instructions to empower clients to manage their condition effectively.