HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5 Questions
Question 1 of 5
During the physical examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess which sign in a female client with a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure and maintained for a few minutes. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability associated with low serum calcium levels. Homans' sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and involves calf pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot. Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment seen in pregnancy, while Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix also seen in pregnancy. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct assessment related to hypocalcemia would be Trousseau's sign.
Question 2 of 5
In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.
Question 3 of 5
Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.
Question 4 of 5
Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.