During the physical examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess which sign in a female client with a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure and maintained for a few minutes. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability associated with low serum calcium levels. Homans' sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and involves calf pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot. Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment seen in pregnancy, while Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix also seen in pregnancy. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct assessment related to hypocalcemia would be Trousseau's sign.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals. This instruction is essential because glipizide is a sulfonylurea medication that works by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin in response to food intake. Taking it before meals ensures that the medication's peak action aligns with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, thus optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Option B is incorrect because glipizide does not cause low serum sodium levels; rather, it can lead to hypoglycemia due to its blood glucose-lowering effects. Monitoring blood glucose levels and not sodium levels is crucial. Option C is incorrect as the client must continue to monitor their blood glucose levels even after starting glipizide to assess the medication's efficacy and adjust the dosage if needed. Option D is incorrect because taking glipizide after a meal may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially leading to suboptimal control of blood glucose levels. From an educational perspective, understanding the timing of medication administration in relation to meals is crucial for nurses managing clients with diabetes. Proper medication administration plays a significant role in achieving therapeutic outcomes and avoiding complications such as hypoglycemia. Nurses must provide clear and accurate medication instructions to empower clients to manage their condition effectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.