HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
During a routine prenatal health assessment for a client in her third trimester, the client reports that she had fluid leakage on her way to the appointment. Which technique should the nurse implement to evaluate the leakage?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Testing the fluid with a nitrazine strip is the appropriate technique to differentiate between amniotic fluid and urine. This test helps in determining if the fluid leakage is amniotic fluid, which is crucial for guiding further management and ensuring appropriate care for the client during the third trimester of pregnancy. Inserting a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder (Choice A) is unnecessary and invasive in this scenario as the concern is fluid leakage, not urinary retention. Scanning the bladder for urinary retention (Choice B) is also not indicated since the client reported fluid leakage, not retention. Palpating the suprapubic area for fetal head position (Choice C) is unrelated to assessing fluid leakage and not the appropriate technique in this situation.
Question 2 of 5
The client is 24 weeks gestation and reports increased thirst and urination. Which diagnostic test result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result is indicative of gestational diabetes. This test is crucial in diagnosing gestational diabetes as it evaluates how well the body processes glucose after a sugary drink. Reporting abnormal results promptly allows for timely intervention and management to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. The other options are not the primary tests used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Hemoglobin A1C is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes as it reflects long-term glucose control. Postprandial blood glucose and fasting blood glucose tests are not as sensitive as the oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosing gestational diabetes.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who experienced fetal demise at 32 weeks' gestation. After the fetus is delivered vaginally, the nurse implements fetal demise protocol and identification procedures. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the mother to hold and spend time with her baby is crucial after a fetal demise at 32 weeks' gestation. This action can support the mother in the grieving process, facilitate bonding, and provide closure, helping her cope with the loss of the baby. Creating a memory box with the baby's footprint and photographs could be emotionally comforting but not as immediate and impactful as encouraging direct physical contact. While offering a visit from her clergy may provide spiritual support, the immediate need is to address the physical and emotional aspects of the situation. Explaining the reasons for obtaining consent for an infant autopsy is important, but it is secondary to the immediate emotional support needed by the mother.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.
Question 5 of 5
A client at 18-weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in a pregnant client can indicate potential congenital anomalies in the fetus. A follow-up sonogram is necessary to provide definitive results and further evaluate the fetus for any possible abnormalities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to explain to the client that scheduling a sonogram is the next appropriate step to assess the fetal well-being and address any concerns regarding the elevated AFP level. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a repeat AFP test alone, discussing surgical correction of defects, or assuming the results are false without further evaluation are not appropriate responses when dealing with a potentially serious issue like elevated AFP levels in pregnancy.