HESI RN
Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.
Question 2 of 5
The client is 24 hours postpartum and is being discharged. The nurse explains that vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. If the client starts having red bleeding after the color changes, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If the client experiences red bleeding after the color changes, it may indicate possible hemorrhage or retained placental fragments, which require immediate attention. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt evaluation and management of potential complications.
Question 3 of 5
Client teaching is an important part of the maternity nurse's role. Which factor has the greatest influence on successful teaching of the gravid client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.
Question 5 of 5
After each feeding, a 3-day-old newborn is spitting up large amounts of Enfamil® Newborn Formula, a nonfat cow's milk formula. The pediatric healthcare provider changes the neonate's formula to Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula, a soy protein isolate-based infant formula. What information should the LPN/LVN provide to the mother about the newly prescribed formula?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should inform the mother that Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula containing sucrose. This formula is suitable for infants with cow's milk protein allergy or intolerance, which may be the reason for the newborn spitting up large amounts of the previous cow's milk formula.