Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?

Questions 46

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HESI Nutrition Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprazolam should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares; gradual tapering is necessary. Choice A is incorrect as sedative hypnotics are not primarily used as analgesics. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine can decrease the effects of sedative hypnotics rather than increase them. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to avoid excessive exercise or high temperature related to alprazolam use.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a colostomy about appropriate food choices. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Eggs are a good protein source and are less likely to cause blockage or odor issues in clients with colostomies. Grapes, pasta, and dried fruits can be problematic for individuals with colostomies as they may cause digestive issues, blockages, or increased gas production. Grapes have skins that are hard to digest, pasta can cause constipation or blockage, and dried fruits are high in fiber which can lead to blockages.

Question 3 of 9

While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is providing care for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which of these assessments is a priority?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the priority assessment is checking the tracheostomy site for signs of infection. This is essential to detect early signs of complications such as infection, which can lead to serious issues. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not as critical as ensuring the tracheostomy site is free from infection. Pain assessment and level of consciousness are also important but secondary to assessing for signs of infection in this scenario.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is to collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) from a client. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Assisting with oral hygiene is the essential initial step before collecting a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) to prevent contamination of the sample. Ensuring the client's mouth is clean reduces the risk of introducing unwanted bacteria into the specimen. Asking the client to cough sputum into a container, having the client take deep breaths, and providing a specimen container are important steps in the specimen collection process, but they should follow ensuring proper oral hygiene.

Question 6 of 9

A client with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Which of these assessments is the highest priority for the nurse to perform?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Auscultation of breath sounds is the highest priority assessment in a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing. It helps the nurse evaluate the severity of the asthma exacerbation by listening for wheezing, crackles, or decreased breath sounds. This assessment guides treatment decisions, such as administering bronchodilators or oxygen therapy. Measurement of peak expiratory flow, although important in assessing asthma severity, may not be feasible in an emergency situation where immediate intervention is needed. Observation of accessory muscle use and assessment of skin color are also important assessments in asthma exacerbation, but auscultation of breath sounds takes precedence in determining the need for urgent interventions.

Question 7 of 9

During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.

Question 8 of 9

Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.

Question 9 of 9

An 85-year-old client complains of generalized muscle aches and pains. What should be the nurse's first action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the severity and location of the pain. This is crucial because understanding the nature of the pain will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate pain management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering analgesics should come after assessing the pain to ensure the right medication is given. Choice C is incorrect because dismissing the pain as a normal part of aging without proper assessment could overlook underlying issues. Choice D is incorrect as increasing activity without understanding the cause of pain may exacerbate the client's condition.

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