HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Questions
Question 1 of 9
Carolina is surprised when her patient does not show for a regularly scheduled appointment. When contacted, the patient states, 'I don't need to come see you anymore. I have found a therapy app on my phone that I love.' How should Carolina respond to this news?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carolina should respond with choice A as it shows interest and willingness to understand the patient's new approach. By asking the patient to show the app, Carolina demonstrates openness to exploring the patient's perspective and the technology they find helpful. Choice B is incorrect as it appears dismissive, failing to acknowledge the patient's autonomy in choosing an alternative therapy method. Choice C is also inappropriate as it undermines the patient's decision-making and progress achieved so far. Choice D comes off as confrontational and judgmental, which could lead to the patient feeling defensive and less likely to engage in a constructive conversation.
Question 2 of 9
A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.
Question 3 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare professional about initiating a prescribed abstinence therapy using Disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B: Before starting Disulfiram therapy, it is crucial for clients to be alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours to prevent adverse reactions. A: Admitting substance abuse is important, but it is not directly linked to the initiation of Disulfiram therapy. C: Attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings is beneficial for support but not a specific requirement for starting Disulfiram. D: The focus of Disulfiram therapy is on alcohol abstinence, so abstaining from heroin or cocaine is not directly related to this medication.
Question 4 of 9
A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra antianxiety medication because, "I'm so stressed out. I just wanted to go sleep." The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's statement of not wanting to talk and feeling that nothing matters anymore is indicative of severe depression or a risk for self-harm. This warrants immediate attention and one-on-one observation to ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and C do not express the same level of concerning behavior and do not imply an immediate risk to the client's well-being.
Question 5 of 9
A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to provide medication education to a client who has just been prescribed an antipsychotic medication. What should the healthcare professional include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antipsychotic medications often have anticholinergic side effects like dry mouth and blurred vision. Teaching the client about these potential side effects is essential for their understanding and management. Regular eye exams (Choice A) are not specifically related to antipsychotic medications. While avoiding caffeine (Choice B) might be a general good practice, it is not a specific side effect of antipsychotic medications. Increasing vitamin C intake (Choice D) is not a standard recommendation for preventing antipsychotic medication side effects.
Question 7 of 9
A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.
Question 8 of 9
Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client's blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in-depth with the client based on this screening tool?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire focuses on the client's self-perception and behaviors related to drinking, such as efforts to cut down and guilt.