HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.
Question 2 of 5
A child is brought to the emergency department after ingesting an unknown quantity of acetaminophen. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Obtaining serum acetaminophen levels is critical in determining the level of toxicity and guiding treatment. It helps to assess the risk of hepatotoxicity and determine the need for antidotal therapy with N-acetylcysteine. Assessing the child's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but obtaining serum acetaminophen levels takes precedence as it directly guides the specific treatment required. Activated charcoal (Choice B) is not routinely used in acetaminophen poisoning. While notifying the poison control center (Choice C) is important, obtaining serum acetaminophen levels should be the immediate action to assess the child's condition and guide treatment.
Question 3 of 5
The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit indicates that the infection is not under control despite antibiotic therapy. Fever is a common sign of ongoing infection or inadequate response to treatment. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically indicative of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating infective endocarditis.
Question 4 of 5
A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.
Question 5 of 5
A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse's priority action when preparing this client for surgery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose levels. Clients with diabetes are at risk for perioperative complications related to blood glucose fluctuations. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to maintaining proper management before, during, and after surgery. Option A is not the priority action as ensuring NPO status is a standard preoperative procedure for all clients. Option C could be important but is secondary to monitoring blood glucose levels. Option D is important but not the priority during the preoperative phase.
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