HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse-manager should ask the nurses to meet to identify ways of working together. This is the best action because it promotes open communication, collaboration, and conflict resolution between the two nurses. By facilitating a discussion between them, the nurse-manager can help address the underlying issues, clarify misunderstandings, and find common ground for effective teamwork. This approach encourages mutual understanding and fosters a positive working relationship. A: Having both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant does not directly address the conflict between them. B: While listening actively and offering suggestions is important, involving both nurses in the discussion is crucial for resolving the conflict. C: Asking the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies does not involve the new graduate in the conversation and may not address the overall issue.
Question 2 of 5
A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Breath sounds). Pitting edema is a common side effect of amlodipine due to vasodilation. It can also lead to pulmonary edema, causing shortness of breath and crackles on auscultation. Therefore, assessing breath sounds is crucial to detect any signs of fluid overload and potential pulmonary complications. Bladder distention (A) is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Serum albumin level (B) may indicate protein status but is not immediately necessary in this case. Abdominal girth (C) is more indicative of ascites or abdominal distension, not directly related to the client's edema and possible pulmonary complications.
Question 3 of 5
While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measure the length of the apneic periods. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations and guiding further interventions. By measuring the length of apneic periods, the nurse can determine the duration of respiratory pauses and their impact on oxygenation. This information helps in deciding the appropriate treatment, such as administering supplemental oxygen or notifying the healthcare provider. Elevating the head of the bed (choice A) can help with breathing but does not address the root cause. Auscultating breath sounds (choice B) is important but does not directly address the apneic periods. Suctioning the oropharynx (choice D) is not indicated unless there is an airway obstruction.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which outcome is the priority for this child?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In acute glomerulonephritis, the kidneys are inflamed, affecting fluid balance. Monitoring urine output of 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr is crucial to assess kidney function and prevent fluid overload or dehydration. This is the priority outcome as it directly reflects kidney function and overall fluid balance. A: Activity tolerance is important but not the priority in acute glomerulonephritis. B: Absence of skin breakdown is important for overall health but not directly related to the condition. C: Nutritional status is important, but fluid balance takes precedence in managing acute glomerulonephritis. In summary, maintaining fluid balance is crucial in managing acute glomerulonephritis as it directly reflects kidney function, while the other options are important but not the priority in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureter lithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective airway clearance. After a ureter lithotomy, the client may be at risk for respiratory complications due to anesthesia, pain, and immobility. Ineffective airway clearance can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress, making it the highest priority. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway and breathing in the postoperative period. Therefore, addressing airway clearance first is crucial to ensure optimal client outcomes.