An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

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Question 1 of 9

An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse-manager should ask the nurses to meet to identify ways of working together. This is the best action because it promotes open communication, collaboration, and conflict resolution between the two nurses. By facilitating a discussion between them, the nurse-manager can help address the underlying issues, clarify misunderstandings, and find common ground for effective teamwork. This approach encourages mutual understanding and fosters a positive working relationship. A: Having both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant does not directly address the conflict between them. B: While listening actively and offering suggestions is important, involving both nurses in the discussion is crucial for resolving the conflict. C: Asking the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies does not involve the new graduate in the conversation and may not address the overall issue.

Question 2 of 9

A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child's cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast. This method helps to relieve itching by providing airflow without causing damage to the cast or skin. It is safe and effective. Choice B: Twisting the cast back and forth may cause discomfort or injury to the child's arm. Choice C: Shaking powder into the cast can create a mess and may lead to skin irritation or infection. Choice D: Pushing a pencil under the cast edge can cause damage to the skin or lead to complications.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 75 ml/hour to a client who had a bowel resection 4 days ago. Which laboratory finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL. This finding indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Low calcium levels can be caused by TPN administration or poor calcium absorption following bowel resection. Immediate intervention may include administering IV calcium gluconate. A: Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL is within the normal range and not an immediate concern. B: White blood cell count of 8000/mm³ is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. C: Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat.

Question 4 of 9

A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Presence of uremic frost. HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis and dehydration, not uremia. A: Increased heart rate is a non-specific sign of stress. B: Visual disturbances can be seen in diabetic retinopathy but are not specific to HHNS. D: Decreased mentation is common in HHNS due to severe dehydration and hyperglycemia leading to altered mental status.

Question 5 of 9

A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (Breath sounds). Pitting edema is a common side effect of amlodipine due to vasodilation. It can also lead to pulmonary edema, causing shortness of breath and crackles on auscultation. Therefore, assessing breath sounds is crucial to detect any signs of fluid overload and potential pulmonary complications. Bladder distention (A) is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Serum albumin level (B) may indicate protein status but is not immediately necessary in this case. Abdominal girth (C) is more indicative of ascites or abdominal distension, not directly related to the client's edema and possible pulmonary complications.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus. This client should be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit because lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect pregnancy outcomes. The antepartal unit is better equipped to provide specialized care for high-risk pregnancies, which would be necessary for a client with lupus. A: A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B - Hepatitis B does not directly impact pregnancy outcomes and does not require transfer to the antepartal unit. C: A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella - Rubella is a viral infection that can be harmful during pregnancy, but the client should be managed in a different unit specialized in infectious diseases. D: A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva - Herpes lesions of the vulva can be managed in the medical-surgical unit and do not necessarily require transfer to the antepartal unit unless there

Question 7 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound (Choice A). This is because the client's situation suggests an incisional dehiscence, which is a surgical complication requiring immediate attention to prevent infection and further complications. Applying a sterile saline dressing helps protect the exposed bowel from contamination and dehydration. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) is important, but immediate wound care is the priority to prevent complications. Administering pain medication (Choice C) can wait until after the wound is properly dressed and assessed. Covering the wound with an abdominal binder (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the urgent need to protect the exposed bowel and prevent infection.

Question 8 of 9

What assessment technique should the nurse use to monitor a client for a common untoward effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inspection of the mouth. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia as a common untoward effect. By inspecting the mouth regularly, the nurse can assess for signs of this side effect such as swollen or bleeding gums. Bladder palpation (A) is not relevant to monitoring phenytoin side effects. Blood glucose monitoring (C) is not typically associated with phenytoin use. Auscultation of breath sounds (D) is not directly related to monitoring for phenytoin side effects.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign to this newly graduated practical nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection. This assignment is the best choice for the new graduate nurse because a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection is likely stable and requires minimal immediate interventions. This client would benefit from the new nurse's routine care and monitoring skills, allowing the nurse to focus on completing tasks efficiently. Option B: With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration requires close monitoring and frequent adjustments in insulin dosages, which may be challenging for a new nurse without adequate supervision. Option C: Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments demands critical thinking skills and quick decision-making abilities, which may overwhelm a new nurse who lacks experience in handling such cases. Option D: Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol involves complex medication management and monitoring for potential complications, which may be beyond the scope of a new nurse's comfort level without proper guidance.

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