An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

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Mental Health HESI Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

Question 2 of 5

A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, "My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!" The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own feelings of anger onto his roommate by attributing his anger to the roommate. Projection involves shifting one's feelings, thoughts, or impulses onto another person. Denial (choice A) is the refusal to accept reality, Rationalization (choice C) involves justifying behaviors with logical reasons, and Splitting (choice D) is the inability to integrate positive and negative qualities of oneself or others.

Question 3 of 5

During an annual physical at a corporate clinic, a male employee tells the nurse that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He further explains that he often gets so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered "getting even" with other drivers. How should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to manage their anger and avoid impulsive actions, as stated in choice B. This approach helps the individual recognize the potential consequences of acting on their anger impulsively. Choice A is not the best response because it focuses on the contagious nature of anger rather than addressing the individual's behavior. Choice C is incorrect as it only highlights the potential dangers of expressing anger to a stranger without providing guidance on managing the underlying issue. Choice D acknowledges the client's feelings but does not offer practical advice on how to address the anger and potential impulsive actions.

Question 4 of 5

A client on the mental health unit is becoming more agitated, shouting at the staff, and pacing in the hallway. When a PRN medication is offered, the client refuses the medication and defiantly sits on the floor in the middle of the unit hallway. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In situations where a client is agitated and refusing medication, a non-confrontational approach with additional staff can help de-escalate the situation and address the client's behavior safely. Transporting the client to the seclusion room (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention unless the client poses an immediate risk of harm to themselves or others. Taking other clients to the client lounge (Choice C) does not directly address the agitated client's behavior. Administering medication to chemically restrain the client (Choice D) should only be considered after other de-escalation attempts have been made and if there is a significant safety concern.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse on the evening shift receives report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the nurse implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is essential to prevent aspiration during the ECT procedure. Choice A, holding all bedtime medication, is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice C, implementing elopement precautions, is unrelated to preparing for ECT. Choice D, giving the client an enema at bedtime, is not a standard pre-ECT intervention.

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