HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
After checking the fingerstick glucose at 1630, what action should be implemented?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering insulin aspart (rapid-acting insulin) is the appropriate action to manage the elevated glucose level of 1630. Choice A, notifying the healthcare provider, is not the immediate action needed for this glucose level. Choice C, giving an IV bolus of Dextrose 50%, would exacerbate hyperglycemia instead of treating it. Choice D, performing quality control on the glucometer, is not relevant to the management of the patient's glucose level at this time.
Question 2 of 5
An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder shows signs of increased energy, giving away belongings, and an elevated mood, it could indicate a shift towards suicidal behavior. Therefore, the best intervention for the nurse is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk for suicide and provide necessary interventions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the potential risk of harm to the client and do not prioritize the immediate assessment required in this situation.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial as it may indicate postoperative complications requiring immediate attention. This symptom can be a sign of bleeding, infection, or other issues that need prompt medical evaluation. Avoiding strenuous activity for 6 weeks is important but not as urgent as reporting fresh blood. Taking acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F is relevant but addressing fresh blood in the urine takes precedence. Consuming an adequate amount of water daily is beneficial but not as critical as recognizing and reporting signs of potential complications.
Question 4 of 5
When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that indicates a potential airway obstruction, which can be caused by an allergic reaction. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to ensure the client's airway is patent and to prevent respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone sodium but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to airway obstruction indicated by stridor.
Question 5 of 5
Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered twins and is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the early detection and prevention of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal tone helps identify uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, while monitoring lochia flow can indicate excessive bleeding. Cold packs on the perineum, although helpful for pain and swelling, are not the priority in this situation. Pain assessment and observing interactions with infants are important but secondary to assessing for signs of postpartum hemorrhage.