Questions 9

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) should be placed in a sitting position, leaning forward, to prevent blood from flowing down the throat. This position helps to control the bleeding and prevents the child from swallowing blood, which can cause nausea or vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because elevating the legs is not recommended for nosebleeds. Choice C is incorrect because lying on the side with the head slightly raised is not the optimal position for managing a nosebleed. Choice D is incorrect because tilting the head back can lead to blood flowing down the throat and potentially cause aspiration.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning in a client with rheumatoid arthritis on prednisone as it may indicate fluid retention or worsening heart failure. Increased joint pain, blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl, and fever of 100.4°F are important assessments but do not require immediate intervention compared to the potential severity of rapid weight gain.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

Question 4 of 5

A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with DKA, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis, which is reflected by a low serum bicarbonate level. Correcting the low serum bicarbonate is crucial to normalize the metabolic acidosis and improve the client's condition. While elevated serum glucose (choice A) and urine ketones (choice D) are characteristic of DKA, addressing the metabolic acidosis takes precedence. Serum potassium (choice B) levels may also need monitoring and management, but correcting the acidosis is the priority to prevent complications like cardiovascular collapse.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can slow peristalsis and commonly cause constipation. By assessing the client's bowel sounds, the nurse can monitor for any signs of decreased bowel motility or potential constipation. Observing for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to hydromorphone administration. Measuring capillary glucose levels (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Counting the apical and radial pulses simultaneously (Choice D) is not specifically indicated in this scenario involving hydromorphone administration.

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