HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.
Question 2 of 5
When developing a plan of care for a male client admitted with delirium tremens, who is dehydrated, experiencing auditory hallucinations, has a bruised, swollen tongue, and is confused, what action should the RN include to ensure the client is physiologically stable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring vital signs is the priority action to ensure the physiological stability of a client with delirium tremens. In this scenario, the client's dehydration, confusion, and other symptoms necessitate close monitoring of vital signs to assess their condition accurately. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice A) is important for hydration but does not directly assess physiological stability. Keeping the room dark (Choice C) may help with hallucinations but is not the primary intervention for physiological stability. Applying ice to the tongue (Choice D) addresses a symptom but is less critical compared to monitoring vital signs in this situation.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is completing the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of depression. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL is critically low and requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider as it indicates a potential electrolyte imbalance, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and other complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges or not indicative of immediate life-threatening issues. A body mass index of 21 may be considered normal for some individuals, a WBC count of 10,000/mm3 is slightly elevated but not an urgent concern, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits for an adolescent.
Question 4 of 5
A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client presents with evidence of anorexia nervosa resulting from self-starvation, which is a life-threatening condition. Providing nutrition and calories is the priority intervention so that the risk of electrolyte imbalance and severe dehydration can be reduced. Behavioral modification therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority in this acute situation. Evaluating for low self-esteem (Choice C) may be part of the nursing assessment but does not address the immediate life-threatening issues. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is important for monitoring progress but does not address the critical need for nutritional therapy in this case.
Question 5 of 5
A male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is admitted to the psychiatric ward due to admitted suicidal ideation. On admission, the client's family informed the healthcare provider that therapy sessions did not seem to be helping. Select only one intervention that has the highest priority.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is to ensure the safety of the client who is admitted due to suicidal ideation. Removing all shaving equipment is crucial to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts using sharp objects. Administering medication or developing a list of therapy programs can be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Determining if the client has a suicide plan is also essential but not as urgent as removing potential means for self-harm.