A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?

Questions 45

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HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.

Question 2 of 9

A healthcare professional reviews the blood gas results of a client in respiratory distress. The pH is 7.32, and the PCO2 is 50 mm Hg. Which of the following acid-base imbalances does the professional recognize in these findings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the pH is low (<7.35) and the PCO2 is increased (>45 mm Hg). These findings indicate that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood due to inadequate ventilation, commonly seen in respiratory distress. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is characterized by a low pH and decreased bicarbonate levels, which is not the case in this scenario. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is associated with a high pH and increased bicarbonate levels. Respiratory alkalosis (Choice D) is marked by a high pH and decreased PCO2, opposite to the values presented in the blood gas results of this client.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the choices are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations. Stress incontinence is characterized by urine loss with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Urge incontinence presents with a sudden and strong urge to void, often accompanied by a large amount of urine released during each occurrence. Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is distended, leading to a constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence, not mentioned in the options, is the leakage of urine due to factors unrelated to a lower urinary tract disorder. Reflex incontinence, also not mentioned, is a condition resulting from abnormal detrusor contractions.

Question 4 of 9

Which is a characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections is that sulfonamides are synthetic compounds, not derived from biologic substances. Choice A is incorrect because sulfonamides are bacteriostatic, not bactericidal. Choice C is incorrect because sulfonamides do not have antifungal and antiviral properties. Choice D is incorrect because sulfonamides act by inhibiting bacterial synthesis of folic acid, not increasing it.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is caring for five clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which clients would the nurse consider to be at risk for post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI)? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI) occurs due to urine flow obstruction, which can result from conditions such as prostate cancer, blood clots in the urinary tract, and ureterolithiasis (kidney stones). Severe burns would lead to pre-renal AKI by reducing blood flow to the kidneys. Lupus would cause intrarenal AKI by affecting the kidney tissue directly. Therefore, options A, B, and C are correct choices for clients at risk for post-renal AKI, making option D the correct answer.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse cares for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, "I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child's bladder." How should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 8 of 9

A client with functional urinary incontinence is being taught by a nurse. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Functional urinary incontinence is not related to bladder issues but rather to difficulties with ambulation or accessing the toilet. The goal is to help the client manage clothing independently. Elastic waistband slacks that are easy to pull down facilitate timely access to the toilet. Choices A and B are unrelated and not applicable to functional urinary incontinence. Choice C is incorrect as surgeries to repair the bladder are not indicated for functional urinary incontinence.

Question 9 of 9

The provider has ordered Kayexalate and sorbitol to be administered to a patient. The nurse caring for this patient would expect which serum electrolyte values prior to administration of this therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia, with a potassium level of 6.9 mEq/L, requires aggressive treatment with Kayexalate and sorbitol to increase the body's excretion of potassium. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L, so patients with the other potassium levels would not be treated aggressively or would need potassium supplementation. Therefore, option C (Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L) is the correct choice as it indicates severe hyperkalemia warranting the administration of Kayexalate and sorbitol. Options A, B, and D have either potassium levels within normal limits, which would not necessitate this aggressive treatment, or potassium levels that are lower than what would typically prompt the need for Kayexalate and sorbitol.

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