HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is crucial in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. This assessment helps determine if the current oxygen therapy is effective or if adjustments are necessary. While administering a bronchodilator is important in managing COPD, assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence to address the client's immediate oxygen needs. Assessing the respiratory rate is also important but evaluating oxygen saturation provides more direct information about the client's oxygen status. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the priority when assessing oxygen saturation in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L should be monitored closely in a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy to detect any electrolyte imbalances. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of hypokalemia due to the effects of anesthesia, stress response, and the surgical procedure itself. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Serum calcium, sodium, and chloride levels are important but not the primary focus following a thyroidectomy, making them incorrect choices.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. While crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath are common in heart failure, elevated liver enzymes specifically point towards possible liver involvement due to heart failure. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute can be expected in a client with heart failure due to compensatory mechanisms, but elevated liver enzymes signal a more severe condition.
Question 5 of 5
Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in the daily plan of care for a client with a burned extremity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Distal pulse intensity. Monitoring distal pulses is crucial to ensure that circulation to the extremity is not compromised. This assessment helps in detecting any signs of decreased circulation, which is vital in managing a burned extremity. While skin integrity (choice B), pain levels (choice C), and range of motion (choice D) are also important assessments, monitoring distal pulse intensity takes precedence as it directly reflects the perfusion status of the affected extremity in a burned client.
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