Questions 9

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI Pharmacology Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.

Question 2 of 5

A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

Question 3 of 5

The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hyperventilation is an indication of a systemic effect of mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) due to its potential to cause acidosis by suppressing renal excretion of acid. If hyperventilation occurs, the medication should be discontinued to prevent further complications.

Question 4 of 5

A client presenting with complaints of not feeling well is seen in a clinic. The client is taking several medications for the control of heart disease and hypertension, including a beta-blocker, digoxin (Lanoxin), and a diuretic. A tentative diagnosis of digoxin toxicity is made. Which of the following assessment data would support this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs may include bradycardia, visual disturbances, and confusion. These symptoms are indicators that the client may be experiencing adverse effects due to elevated levels of digoxin in the system, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent serious complications.

Question 5 of 5

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.

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