Questions 9

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What assessment finding indicates the need for further intervention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to complete sentences without pausing indicates respiratory distress and the need for immediate intervention. This finding suggests an increased work of breathing and inadequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as choice D. Feeling short of breath (choice A) is expected in pneumonia but does not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 92% (choice B) is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute (choice C) is within the normal range and does not signify an urgent need for intervention.

Question 2 of 5

A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the therapy and ensure the client is not developing anemia. Increased hemoglobin levels indicate successful treatment, whereas very high levels may suggest erythropoietin is overcorrecting the anemia. Monitoring the white blood cell count is not directly related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. Serum creatinine level is used to assess kidney function rather than the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Platelet count is not typically affected by erythropoietin therapy and is not a key indicator of its effectiveness.

Question 3 of 5

An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

Question 4 of 5

A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

Question 5 of 5

During a neurologic assessment of a client with a suspected stroke, which finding is most concerning?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sudden loss of consciousness in a client with a suspected stroke is the most concerning finding as it indicates a more severe neurological event, such as brain stem involvement or hemorrhage, requiring immediate intervention. While unilateral facial droop, slurred speech, and weakness in one arm are all common signs of a stroke, sudden loss of consciousness signifies a critical condition that needs urgent attention and evaluation to prevent further complications.

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