HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.
Question 2 of 5
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client's cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.
Question 3 of 5
After completing her first chemotherapy treatment, what behavior indicates that a female client with breast cancer understands her discharge care needs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Renting movies and borrowing books for use during recovery indicates the client is planning restful activities at home, which aligns with appropriate post-chemotherapy care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because refusing anti-nausea medication can lead to complications, resuming strenuous physical activity immediately can be harmful, and reporting severe fatigue and inability to perform daily activities may indicate a need for medical attention rather than understanding discharge care needs.
Question 4 of 5
An older adult client with gastroenteritis has been taking the antidiarrheal diphenoxylate for the past 24 hours. What finding requires the nurse to take further action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing skin turgor is crucial as tented skin turgor indicates dehydration, which can be worsened by antidiarrheal medications like diphenoxylate. Providing fluids is essential to address dehydration in this client. Monitoring fluid intake (choice A) is important, but assessing skin turgor takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining a stool sample for testing (choice B) could be necessary for diagnostic purposes but is not the immediate priority. Administering a laxative (choice C) is contraindicated in this case as it can worsen the client's condition by further exacerbating fluid loss.
Question 5 of 5
A client is newly diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. What information should the nurse provide during medication teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with duodenal ulcers should avoid spicy foods and alcohol as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Choice A is incorrect because while antacids may help with symptoms, they are not the primary focus of medication teaching for duodenal ulcers. Choice C is not directly related to medication teaching for duodenal ulcers unless antibiotics are specifically prescribed. Choice D is incorrect as stopping all food intake is not recommended and can lead to other complications.