HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse receives a report on a client who is four hours post-total abdominal hysterectomy. The previous nurse reported that it was necessary to change the client's perineal pad hourly and that it is again saturated. The previous nurse also reports that the client's urinary output has decreased. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Saturation of the perineal pad after a hysterectomy suggests excessive vaginal bleeding, which must be addressed immediately. Assessing for vaginal bleeding is the priority in this situation as it can lead to hypovolemic shock. Measuring urinary output, assessing for weakness or dizziness, and increasing IV fluids are important interventions but checking for vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to the risk of hemorrhage post-hysterectomy.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is preparing a client who had a BKA amputation for discharge to home. Which recommendations should the nurse provide this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Proper care of the residual limb is essential in preventing complications like infection or poor healing. By choosing 'All of the above,' the nurse ensures that the client receives comprehensive care. Inspecting the skin for redness is crucial as it can help in early detection of infections. Using a residual limb shrinker helps reduce swelling and maintain proper shaping of the limb. Washing the stump with soap and water on a daily basis is important for hygiene and preventing infections. Therefore, all the recommendations (choices A, B, and C) are essential for the client's care, making choice A the correct answer. Choice D is incorrect as it does not encompass all the necessary recommendations for the client's care.
Question 4 of 9
A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.
Question 5 of 9
A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate long-term glucose control?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C). Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects long-term glucose control over the past three months. Monitoring blood glucose levels provides information on the current glucose status and immediate control, but it does not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Urine output and serum ketone levels are important indicators for other aspects of diabetes management, such as hydration status and ketone production during hyperglycemic episodes, but they do not directly reflect long-term glucose control.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a tracheostomy develops copious, thick secretions. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the humidity of the oxygen source. This action helps thin thick secretions, making them easier to clear from the tracheostomy tube. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial in some cases but addressing humidity is more specific to managing thick secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Tracheal suctioning (Choice B) should be done after attempting to thin the secretions with increased humidity. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice C) is a possible intervention but typically comes after addressing humidity and before resorting to suctioning to avoid unnecessary invasiveness.
Question 7 of 9
At 42-weeks gestation, a client refuses induction and desires a natural delivery. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss alternative ways to support her birth plan. It is crucial to respect the client's autonomy and desires while ensuring their safety and well-being. Choice B is incorrect because while educating the client about the indications for induction is important, it is not the most immediate action to take in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on comparing labor types rather than supporting the client's birth plan. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should first engage with the client directly before involving the healthcare provider.
Question 8 of 9
Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: Monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is crucial because orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, increasing the risk of falls and related injuries. Therefore, regular blood pressure monitoring helps healthcare providers detect and manage this potential side effect. Incorrect Choices Rationale: - Choice B is incorrect because while antipsychotic drugs can have various side effects, causing elevated blood pressure is not a common effect associated with them. - Choice C is unrelated to blood pressure monitoring in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs. Monitoring blood pressure in this context aims to detect and manage side effects of the medication, not to assess sodium intake. - Choice D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is primarily aimed at detecting orthostatic hypotension, not as an indicator for instituting antiparkinsonian drugs.
Question 9 of 9
A client tells the nurse, 'I have something very important to tell you if you promise not to tell.' The best response by the nurse is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse cannot promise confidentiality in this context. It is essential to prioritize the safety and well-being of the client and others. Certain information, such as harm to oneself or others, must be reported to ensure appropriate interventions are taken. Choice A is incorrect because while documentation is important, confidentiality cannot be guaranteed in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not make promises that may conflict with their professional responsibilities. Choice D is incorrect as reporting everything to the treatment team without discretion may breach client confidentiality.