HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.
Question 2 of 9
A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. The symptoms described, including symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, are classic manifestations of botulism, which is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Choice A, ricin, typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and organ failure. Choice C, sulfur mustard, causes blistering skin and respiratory issues. Choice D, yersinia pestis, is associated with the plague and presents with fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse has started a group for senior citizens in a church setting. The group decides that their first project will be to begin a program for home-bound members. Which program outcome is the best measure of the project's effectiveness?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The number of home-bound seniors visited is the best measure of the project's effectiveness as it directly reflects the reach and impact of the program. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the effectiveness of the program for home-bound seniors. Choice C is irrelevant as the average annual income of home-bound members is not a direct measure of the program's effectiveness. Choice D, calls showing interest, is not as direct a measure as the actual visits to the home-bound seniors.
Question 4 of 9
An older client requiring total care resides with a family consisting of two daughters who take shifts providing care around-the-clock. During a home visit, the daughters ask the nurse about resources that are available for client care while they attend a scheduled family reunion. Which information is best for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Respite care provides temporary relief for primary caregivers, allowing them to attend the reunion while ensuring the client is cared for.
Question 5 of 9
A community health nurse is planning an intervention to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in the community. Which strategy is most effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most effective strategy to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in the community is hosting cooking classes on preparing healthy meals. This intervention provides practical skills and education that can directly impact dietary habits, leading to a decreased risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Offering free blood glucose screenings (Choice B) may help in early detection but does not address prevention. Distributing pamphlets on diabetes prevention (Choice C) provides information but lacks the interactive and hands-on approach of cooking classes. Organizing a community walking program (Choice D) promotes physical activity, which is beneficial, but dietary changes have a more significant impact on preventing type 2 diabetes.
Question 6 of 9
The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client with anemia. Which action is most important to prevent a transfusion reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Verifying the blood type and Rh factor with another healthcare professional is the most crucial action to prevent a transfusion reaction. Ensuring compatibility between the donor blood and the recipient is essential in preventing adverse reactions such as hemolytic transfusion reactions. Checking vital signs is important for monitoring the client during the transfusion process but does not directly prevent a transfusion reaction. Using a blood filter can help remove clots and debris but does not address the risk of a reaction due to blood type incompatibility. Administering antihistamines before the transfusion is not a standard practice to prevent transfusion reactions related to blood type incompatibility.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.
Question 9 of 9
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication to a client. Which action should the healthcare provider take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's allergy status is the priority before administering any medication, especially intravenously. This step helps identify any potential allergic reactions and prevents harm to the client. Verifying the client's identity using two identifiers is important but not the first step in medication administration. Preparing the medication for administration and administering the medication at the prescribed rate come after ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies.