HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with chronic renal failure is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: The correct answer is C, 'Hyperkalemia.' Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is a medication used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to assess the effectiveness of the medication and prevent potential complications related to hyperkalemia. Choice A, 'Hyponatremia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate does not primarily affect sodium levels. Choice B, 'Hypokalemia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate is used to treat high potassium levels, not low. Choice D, 'Hypocalcemia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate does not directly impact calcium levels.
Question 2 of 5
The client with chronic renal failure is being educated about the importance of a low-sodium diet. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with chronic renal failure need to strictly limit their sodium intake. Advising the client to use table salt sparingly is incorrect as they should avoid table salt altogether to adhere to a low-sodium diet. Choice A is correct as rinsing canned vegetables can help reduce their sodium content. Choice C is correct as consuming frozen dinners labeled low-sodium can be a suitable option. Choice D is incorrect as it implies that avoiding only salty foods is sufficient, when in fact, overall sodium intake needs to be monitored closely.
Question 3 of 5
The client has been managing angina episodes with nitroglycerin. Which of the following indicates the drug is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption, which helps to reduce chest pain caused by angina. Therefore, a reduction in chest pain is a positive indicator of the drug's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not typically increase blood pressure or heart rate; instead, it often causes a decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation and may cause a reflex tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a compensatory response to lowered blood pressure.
Question 4 of 5
When monitoring a client who is receiving tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should have resuscitation equipment available because reperfusion of the cardiac tissue can result in which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac arrhythmias. Reperfusion of cardiac tissue following t-PA administration can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating resuscitation equipment. Hypertension (choice B) is a common side effect of t-PA but is not directly related to reperfusion. Seizures (choice C) and hypothermia (choice D) are not typically associated with reperfusion from t-PA administration.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is instructing the client on insulin administration. The client's morning dose of insulin is 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse checks the dose accuracy with the client. The nurse determines that the client has prepared the correct dose when the syringe reads how many units?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct dose would be 32 units, which is the sum of 10 units of regular insulin and 22 units of NPH. It is essential to combine the doses of both types of insulin to ensure the client administers the correct total dose. Choices A and B represent the individual doses of regular and NPH insulin, respectively, not the combined total. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the sum of both insulin doses.