HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with COPD exacerbation as it may lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias, which pose a significant risk to the patient's life. Options B, C, and D are not typically associated with immediate life-threatening risks in the context of a COPD exacerbation.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.
Question 3 of 5
To reduce staff nurse role ambiguity, which strategy should the nurse-manager implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current. By ensuring that job descriptions are clear and up-to-date, nurse-managers can reduce ambiguity and confusion about roles and responsibilities. Choice B, conducting regular meetings to clarify roles, may help but may not address the root cause of ambiguity. Choice C, increasing communication between team members, is important but may not specifically target role ambiguity. Choice D, providing additional training for new nurses, is valuable but may not directly address role ambiguity among existing staff.
Question 4 of 5
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. A low serum potassium level in a client with DKA is concerning due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Kussmaul respirations (choice A) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in DKA. A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl (choice B) is elevated but expected in DKA. Positive urine ketones (choice D) are a classic finding in DKA and not as concerning as low serum potassium.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with Diabetes Insipidus. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypernatremia. In a client with Diabetes Insipidus, hypernatremia, an elevated sodium level in the blood, can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, seizures, or coma. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent these serious complications. Excessive thirst (choice B) is a common symptom of Diabetes Insipidus but does not require immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice C) and poor skin turgor (choice D) are important assessments but are not as critical as hypernatremia in this context.
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