HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. Monitoring hemoglobin is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Serum potassium levels are often monitored in chronic kidney disease, but it is not the primary parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly influenced by erythropoietin injections for chronic kidney disease.
Question 2 of 5
When a pediatric client is taking the beta-adrenergic blocking agent propranolol, what signs of overdose should the nurse instruct the parents to report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a pediatric client is taking propranolol, the nurse should instruct the parents to report signs of overdose, including bradycardia. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to dangerously slow heart rate as a sign of overdose. While increased respiratory rate, seizures, and irritability may occur in some cases, bradycardia is the most critical symptom indicating an overdose of this medication.
Question 3 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue. What is the nurse's first action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with COPD experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue is to check the client's oxygen saturation. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate the client's respiratory status promptly. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the oxygen saturation. Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can help improve breathing but should not precede oxygen saturation assessment. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) may be needed based on the oxygen saturation results, but assessing it first is crucial.
Question 4 of 5
A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.
Question 5 of 5
A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.
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