A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I've been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN's best response?

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Question 1 of 5

A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I've been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN's best response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.

Question 2 of 5

A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

Question 3 of 5

A healthcare professional is preparing to provide medication education to a client who has just been prescribed an antipsychotic medication. What should the healthcare professional include in the teaching plan?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antipsychotic medications often have anticholinergic side effects like dry mouth and blurred vision. Teaching the client about these potential side effects is essential for their understanding and management. Regular eye exams (Choice A) are not specifically related to antipsychotic medications. While avoiding caffeine (Choice B) might be a general good practice, it is not a specific side effect of antipsychotic medications. Increasing vitamin C intake (Choice D) is not a standard recommendation for preventing antipsychotic medication side effects.

Question 4 of 5

A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

Question 5 of 5

A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.

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