A client with advanced chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' Clients with advanced chronic kidney disease are at risk of fluid retention, which can lead to complications like fluid overload and hypertension. Therefore, it is crucial to instruct the client to limit fluid intake. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can exacerbate fluid retention and hypertension in clients with CKD. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can be dangerous for clients with CKD who may already have elevated potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while protein intake may need to be adjusted for clients on hemodialysis, the priority in this case is managing fluid intake.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a client scheduled for a colonoscopy and prescribed a bowel preparation is to take the entire bowel preparation as directed. Completing the entire bowel preparation as prescribed is crucial to ensure the colon is properly cleansed for the colonoscopy. Incomplete bowel prep can interfere with the visualization of the colon, leading to inaccurate results. Choices A, B, and D are important but not as crucial as ensuring the complete intake of the bowel preparation for an effective procedure.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate to quickly raise the blood sugar. Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, is the appropriate initial intervention for hypoglycemia. Giving a glucagon injection is reserved for severe cases or when the client is unconscious. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating acute hypoglycemia, as it is a slower-acting form of glucose. Rechecking the blood glucose level is important but should occur after providing immediate treatment to raise the blood sugar level.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly confused is to monitor the client's vital signs (Choice B). Increased confusion in Alzheimer's disease patients may indicate underlying issues like infection, dehydration, or medication side effects. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in identifying any potential causes of the confusion. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. Reorienting the client to time and place (Choice A) can be helpful but is not the first priority. Providing calming activities (Choice C) and consulting with the healthcare provider about medication adjustments (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after assessing the client's vital signs to rule out immediate physical causes of confusion.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.