Questions 9

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI RN Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Severe abdominal distention is a sign of worsening pancreatitis and can indicate complications like bowel obstruction or fluid accumulation. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration. Decreased urine output (Choice B) could indicate renal impairment, decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) are expected in pancreatitis due to paralytic ileus, and an increased heart rate (Choice D) is a common response to pain or stress in acute pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless it is extremely high or persistent.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. While crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath are common in heart failure, elevated liver enzymes specifically point towards possible liver involvement due to heart failure. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute can be expected in a client with heart failure due to compensatory mechanisms, but elevated liver enzymes signal a more severe condition.

Question 3 of 5

A client is admitted for type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which breakfast selection by the client indicates effective learning?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries is a suitable choice for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease as it provides a balanced meal that helps manage blood sugar levels and kidney function. Choice A contains high saturated fats and added sugars from bacon, butter, and jam, which are not ideal for this client. Choice C includes high sugar content from maple syrup and pancake, which can negatively impact blood sugar levels. Choice D contains high sugar content from orange juice and cold cereal, which can lead to blood sugar spikes, not suitable for a client with diabetes and CKD.

Question 4 of 5

During orientation, a newly hired nurse demonstrates suctioning of a tracheostomy in a skills class. After the demonstration, the supervising nurse expresses concern that the demonstrated procedure increased the client's risk for which problem?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. Improper suctioning techniques can introduce pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Choice B, Hypoxia, is incorrect as it is more related to inadequate oxygen supply. Choice C, Bleeding, is not typically associated with suctioning a tracheostomy unless done too aggressively. Choice D, Bronchospasm, is not directly linked to suctioning but may occur due to other triggers in patients with sensitive airways.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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