HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What client teaching is essential?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin. Crystalluria is the formation of crystals in the urine, which can be reduced by maintaining adequate hydration. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding sunlight exposure is more relevant for medications that cause photosensitivity, not typically a concern with ciprofloxacin. Choice D is less essential than choice A because while reporting changes in urine color is important, preventing crystalluria through adequate fluid intake is a higher priority.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with COPD experiencing increasing shortness of breath. It helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Choice B is not the priority as oxygenation needs to be addressed first. Choice C, chest physiotherapy, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D, encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe, is not the priority intervention when oxygenation is compromised.
Question 3 of 5
A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.
Question 4 of 5
A client is admitted with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dark, tarry stools indicate the presence of digested blood in the gastrointestinal tract, signifying a higher gastrointestinal bleed. This finding requires immediate intervention due to the potential severity of the bleed. Bright red blood in the vomit may indicate active bleeding but is not as concerning as digested blood. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate are common responses to bleeding but do not provide direct evidence of the source or severity of the bleed. Coffee ground emesis is indicative of partially digested blood and is a concern but not as urgent as dark, tarry stools.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.