A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a client presents with signs of distress and potential safety concerns, the priority is to provide a safe environment. Offering a safe place to relax can help the client feel secure and ready for further assessment and support. This action allows the nurse to establish rapport, ensure the client's immediate safety, and create a trusting relationship before delving into the details of the situation. Asking the client to describe why she is being stalked (Choice B) may exacerbate her distress and should come after ensuring her safety. Recommending that the client talk with a social worker (Choice C) is important but should follow immediate safety measures. Assuring the client that the healthcare provider will see her today (Choice D) is less critical than addressing her safety concerns and emotional state.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Excessive CNS stimulation will be reduced.' During benzodiazepine withdrawal, the priority is to manage symptoms such as CNS hyperactivity, which can include agitation, anxiety, and seizures. Substitution therapy aims to minimize these withdrawal symptoms by providing a safer alternative to the benzodiazepine. Options B, C, and D are not the highest priority during benzodiazepine withdrawal. Decreasing co-dependent behaviors, increasing the client's level of consciousness, and preventing cross-addiction are important aspects of care but are not as critical as managing the potentially severe CNS stimulation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client is projecting their own aggressive tendencies onto the psychiatric aide by suggesting hitting the wall instead of the aide. This statement reflects projection, a defense mechanism where one attributes their unacceptable feelings or impulses to others. Choice B reflects externalization rather than projection, Choice C reflects rationalization, and Choice D reflects denial.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl is critically low, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for immediate intervention. Choice B, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, is within the normal range. Choice C, a white blood cell count of 10,000 mm³, is also within normal limits and is not a concerning finding in this context. Choice D, a body mass index of 21, may indicate being underweight but is not as urgent as addressing the critically low potassium level.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: During an interview, note-taking can hinder the nurse's ability to directly observe the client's nonverbal cues such as body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice. These nonverbal cues are crucial for understanding the client's emotions, feelings, and overall communication. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to strike a balance between note-taking for documentation purposes and actively observing the client's nonverbal communication to ensure a comprehensive assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because maintaining eye contact, enhancing the interview process with note-taking, and legal obligations of note-taking during an interview do not directly address the issue of limited observation of nonverbal communication while taking notes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In treating anorexia nervosa with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), the primary goals are to normalize eating behaviors and achieve weight restoration. Therefore, adherence to a meal plan and weight gain are crucial indicators of treatment effectiveness. While discussing the impact of the disorder on the family (Choice B) can be beneficial for therapy, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of CBT in treating anorexia nervosa. Expressing a desire to change behavior (Choice C) is a positive step, but actual behavioral changes such as adhering to a meal plan are more indicative of progress. Reducing the frequency of binge eating (Choice D) is more relevant for other eating disorders like bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a male client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized with antipsychotic medications is to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Medication adherence is crucial in managing schizophrenia, preventing relapse, and maintaining stability. While seeing the psychiatrist regularly (Choice A) is important, adherence to medication is more critical for the client's immediate well-being. Avoiding caffeine and alcohol (Choice C) may be beneficial but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Daily exercise (Choice D) is important for overall health but is not the most critical instruction for managing schizophrenia.